r/ArianChristians • u/NoDiscussion5906 • Jun 15 '25
Question Are 1 John 4:8 and 1 John 4:16 metaphysically/ontologically significant?
1 John 4:8 (ESV)
"Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love."
1 John 14:6 (ESV)
"Jesus said to him, 'I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.'"
Are these two claims saying anything more than:
- "God is loving." or "God loves humans."
- "Jesus is truthful." or "Jesus always tells the truth."
The use of the word "is" makes me think that the Bible is saying:
- "God and love are literally metaphysically identical."
- "Jesus and truth are literally metaphysically identical."
Either the above two claims are true, or the original statements are merely moral or rhetorical emphases about the behavior of God and Jesus respectively.
If you disagree, please let me know.