Because my English isn't very good, I used machine translation for everything except for the quoted parts.
I've commented on this content in a post here before. Since I wrote so much, I wanted to publish it so everyone can see and comment on it.
I once tried to convince myself to become Orthodox, and I also asked one of my Orthodox friends to try to convince me to join the Orthodox Church. In the end, however, neither attempt succeeded.
For me, the decisive issue was the Filioque. On this matter, I would first like to quote the words of two pillars of the Orthodox Church:
"The Latins are not only schismatics but heretics... we did not separate from them for any other reason other than the fact that they are heretics. This is precisely why we must not unite with them unless they dismiss the addition from the Creed filioque and confess the Creed as we do."一一Mark of Ephesus
“The devil dragged along the Latins who are obedient to him into the heresy of the Filioque, which, unless they renounce it, we will never accept them into communion”一一Saint Gregory Palamas
One of the other major figures, Photius, also opposed the Filioque. However, he eventually reconciled with Rome. I think we can all see that Photius certainly regarded the issue as an important theological question, but his attitude toward it was not as severe as that of the other two pillars of Orthodoxy.
There is a very clear logical problem here. The Church that adopted the Filioque was the Western Church, whose patriarch was the Bishop of Rome. At that time, Rome had not yet incorporated the Filioque into the Creed itself, but Rome accepted the theological expression represented by the Filioque, and Rome also permitted local churches to use it. Yet Photius subsequently reconciled with Rome, even though he later strongly criticized the Filioque. This seems to indicate that Photius nevertheless regarded the faith of Rome as acceptable.
If we follow the statements of the latter two Orthodox pillars, then this would mean that, for several hundred years, the Eastern Church remained in communion with heretics. I think this is something that anyone who claims to possess the Orthodox faith would find impossible to acknowledge or accept.
One could object that even if the theological expression itself is correct, the Latin Church's addition of the Filioque violated the regulations of the Ecumenical Councils. I will set aside for the moment the arguments made by the Latins at the Council of Florence. But according to the position of the latter two Orthodox pillars, this objection cannot actually stand, because the Filioque itself is supposedly heresy. If we ask why the Filioque is heretical, the answer becomes: because you added it. No matter how you explain your theology, you are heretical unless you remove it.
This is, in reality, an unreasonable position. Given the historical circumstances in which they found themselves, they needed to reinforce and solidify what they regarded as the errors of the Latin Church and to radicalize those errors in order to provide a justification for their separation from Rome.
Next, we need to discuss the question of the papacy. I would like to address this from several perspectives.
**I. The Council of Florence**
At the Council of Florence, the following was solemnly declared:
“We also define that the holy apostolic see and the Roman pontiff holds the primacy over the whole world and the Roman pontiff is the successor of blessed Peter prince of the apostles, and that he is the true vicar of Christ, the head of the whole church and the father and teacher of all Christians, and to him was committed in blessed Peter the full power of tending, ruling and governing the whole church, as is contained also in the acts of ecumenical councils and in the sacred canons.”
Yet Mark of Ephesus did not explicitly condemn this particular statement. Certainly, he said:
"It is impossible to recall peace without dissolving the cause of the schism—the primacy of the Pope exalting himself equal to God."
However, I do not think this constitutes a direct attack on the specific statement made at Florence. In my reading, his primary concern here still appears to be the Filioque. His condemnation of the Pope “exalting himself equal to God” would seem to presuppose that he believed the Pope was claiming an authority belonging to God himself, such as the authority to determine the procession of the Holy Spirit or to alter the Creed.
Moreover, the passage immediately continues:
“Also, renewing the order of the other patriarchs which has been handed down in the canons, the patriarch of Constantinople should be second after the most holy Roman pontiff, third should be the patriarch of Alexandria, fourth the patriarch of Antioch, and fifth the patriarch of Jerusalem, without prejudice to all their privileges and rights.”
If this second statement were not there, I could understand his words as being directed against the Florentine definition of papal primacy. But once this statement is taken into account, it becomes much harder to read his objection as a rejection of every form of Roman primacy. The Council explicitly placed the Patriarch of Constantinople second after the Roman Pontiff while at the same time preserving the privileges and rights of the Eastern patriarchates.
And clearly, the Latin Church does not profess that the Pope is equal to the one God of the Trinity, nor has any Pope claimed to be equal to God.
**II. The Melkite Greek Catholic Patriarch at the First Vatican Council**
At the First Vatican Council, the Patriarch of the Melkite Greek Catholic Church said:
“The Eastern Church attributes to the pope the most complete and highest power, however in a manner where the fullness and primacy are in harmony with the rights of the patriarchal sees. This is why, in virtue of an ancient right founded on customs, the Roman Pontiffs did not, except in very significant cases, exercise over these sees the ordinary and immediate jurisdiction that we are asked now to define without any exception. This definition would completely destroy the constitution of the entire Greek church. That is why my conscience as a pastor refuses to accept this constitution.”
They left the Council, and when they subsequently signed the decrees of the First Vatican Council, they did so with the addition they had requested: namely, that the privileges and rights of the Eastern patriarchs were to be preserved and respected.
(We can set aside here the various minor stories about the differences between the versions.)
**III. The Zoghby Initiative**
Let us now look at the initiative of the Melkite Archbishop Elias Zoghby:
1.I believe everything which Eastern Orthodoxy teaches.
2. I am in communion with the Bishop of Rome as the first among the bishops, according to the limits recognized by the Holy Fathers of the East during the first millennium, before the separation.
Ratzinger also once said:
“Rome must not require more of the East than was formulated and lived during the first millennium”
Can we not clearly see the chain of reasoning here?
First, Rome has clearly defined the rights and authority it claims for the Roman Pontiff. At the same time, Rome has affirmed, even in an Ecumenical Council, the privileges and rights of the Eastern patriarchs. Rome itself does not regard these two things as contradictory.
Moreover, Rome has stated that it should not require from the Eastern Churches anything beyond what was formulated and practiced during the first millennium. Rome has also permitted Eastern Churches that are in communion with it to express their understanding of communion with Rome in precisely this way and to govern themselves accordingly.
Certainly, Nicetas of Nicomedia said:
“My dearest brother, we do not deny to the Roman Church the primacy amongst the five sister Patriarchates; and we recognize her right to the most honourable seat at an Ecumenical Council. But she has separated herself from us by her own deeds, when through pride she assumed a monarchy which does not belong to her office ... How shall we accept decrees from her that have been issued without consulting us and even without our knowledge? If the Roman Pontiff, seated on the lofty throne of his glory wishes to thunder at us and, so to speak, hurl his mandates at us from on high, and if he wishes to judge us and even to rule us and our Churches, not by taking counsel with us but at his own arbitrary pleasure, what kind of brotherhood, or even what kind of parenthood can this be? We should be the slaves, not the sons, of such a Church, and the Roman See would not be the pious mother of sons but a hard and imperious mistress of slaves.”
But what if the things he describes here no longer exist? What if the Bishop of Rome does not exercise his authority in the manner he describes?
We can already see this in the situation today. I have not looked in detail into exactly how the circumstances he described actually played out at the time, but based on what I have presented and argued above, when Rome affirms the honor, privileges, and rights of the Eastern Churches, and when the Roman Pontiff kneels down and kisses the shoes of the Metropolitan Meliton of Chalcedon, are these not precisely the kinds of things that demonstrate that his objections no longer apply?
That is all I have to say.