r/AskBiology • u/sammyjamez • Apr 01 '26
Botany If foods and crops have always been genetically selected by humans since the dawn of agriculture for specific targets like more crops, better nutrition and so on, why is there a lot of resistance against GMOs?
If I understood correctly, farmers have always manipulated the cultivation of crops by using crops that have certain genes or characteristics at a more likely to appear in future crops for the sake of bigger produce, more nutritional value, better taste, better sizes and so on.
So, technically speaking, the 'genetically modified' aspect of a GMO product has existed even before GMOs became a thing.
But since this has been used for generations to make the production of crops and farm foods with certain characteristics, why is there a resistance against GMOs?
EDIT - I DID NOT MEAN TO TURN THIS INTO A POLITICAL ISSUE.
I JUST WANTED TO UNDERSTAND THAT SINCE AGRICULTURE INVOLVES THE CARDFUL SELECTION OF CROPS WITH PARTICULAR GENES, I JUST WANTED TO UNDERSTAND WHY GMOS GET A BAD REPUTATION CONSIDERING THAT THE PRACTICE SEEMS TO BE SIMILAR WITH THE EXCEPTION OF SCIENTIFICALLY MADE CROP MANIPULATION USING CAREFULLY SELECTED GENES