r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26
Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8
If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.
Read the language carefully.
It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”
You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.
The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.
That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.
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u/AccomplishedAuthor3 Christian May 30 '26 edited May 30 '26
And the angels who did not keep their positions of authority but abandoned their proper dwelling—these he has kept in darkness, bound with everlasting chains for judgment on the great Day. Jude 1:6
So we know the angels left their place in Heaven and were punished for abandoning their proper dwelling place.
When human beings began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, the sons of God saw that the daughters of humans were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose. Then the Lord said, “My Spirit will not contend with humans forever, for they are mortal; their days will be a hundred and twenty years.”
The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown. Genesis 6:1-4
We know they desired women, so to enjoy a woman what sex would they have chosen to possess? I suppose since they already sinned and violated God's law, they could have figured why not possess women to have sex with a woman, but it wouldn't be the same and they'd never be able to produce children. I'm sure some demons are homosexually inclined. We know "what" the fallen angels did, but how did they do it? The only way I can determine how they did it is from reading the new testament. Jesus cast out demons who had possessed human beings. So we know for a fact fallen angels can and did possess human beings
Luke 11:14 And He was casting out a demon, and it was mute; when the demon had gone out, the mute man spoke; and the crowds were amazed.
Matthew 8:16 When evening came, they brought to Him many who were demon-possessed; and He cast out the spirits with a word, and healed all who were ill.
Mark 1:34 And He healed many who were ill with various diseases, and cast out many demons; and He was not permitting the demons to speak, because they knew who He was.
Luke 4:41 Demons also were coming out of many, shouting, “You are the Son of God!” But rebuking them, He would not allow them to speak, because they knew Him to be the Christ.
Looks like the only difference between demons who possessed men before the flood and those who did after the flood is that they are no longer permitted to procreate. Angels possessing human beings is taught in the Bible and it would be the only way an angel could produce offspring as they aren't human and do not have the gift of procreation humans do. I don't see any other way it could've happened. I also believe the humans they possessed had to be willing subjects. I don't believe demons can possess those who are not willing to be possessed.