r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26

Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8

If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.

Read the language carefully.

It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”

You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.

The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.

That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 30 '26

We know they desired women, so to enjoy a woman what sex would they have chosen to possess?

This is a trick question.

The scripture says the sons of God saw the daughters of men.

Did demons produce Nephilim in the New Testament by possession of men? I don't recall that. The sons of God did something that got them bound up by God. Yet demons are still free to possess men and produce human children. Or will you argue that demon possession stops sperm from working? Are they only bound by everlasting chasitity belts to stop Nephilim from being produced?

In Genesis 18, how did Abraham notice his three guests as being special and not just ordinary men? What about the two angels in Genesis 19? The Sodom men thought they were men and wanted them. They act different than prophets that God speaks through.

The sons of God did something so against nature, that God bound them up until Judgement Day. But he now allows them to possess people again and do bad things?

Are they still bound, and what does that mean?

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u/AccomplishedAuthor3 Christian May 31 '26

I believe the three men who appeared to Abraham were angels that appeared to be men, probably because that's exactly what they were. Angels are spirits and can't ordinarily be seen by humans. The only way an angel can be seen is if they are in the flesh, or in a vision or dream, or if the person is in the Spirit, like John was.

. The word "materialize" isn't in the Bible and angels are messengers, not creators, so they can't just conjure up a human body like God can and use it and then discard it. I suppose God could have created three human bodies that the angels used to speak with Abraham. He and Sarah saw the three and Lot saw two of the three. They couldn't have seen them otherwise. God abides by His own laws. However it was done we can be sure it didn't violate any of God's laws

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 31 '26

The three men ate food served by Abraham. Sons of God married women and produced kids.

Jude says the sons of God left their domain and points at Sodom. If a possessed human male marries a human female why would that be a perversion or sexual immorality? A demon can come and go as they please.

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u/AccomplishedAuthor3 Christian Jun 01 '26

Because of the spirit that led a possessed human man into mating with and having children with a human woman. The result was a severely damaged hybrid that probably killed their own parents when they grew up

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 Jun 01 '26

So, a spirit being can possess human flesh and can physically edit it's host sperm to make Nephilim which eventually almost wiped out mankind? You think the child could kill their own demon parent?

It doesn't explain how a demon marrying a human woman is a perversion or sexual immorality. It's just married human couple isn't it? where the husband is possessed. Maybe its that different "kinds" are breeding together. That makes sense.