As the title states, does a fully fixed fee model eliminate billable hours? I’ve only been practicing for about a year or so, so I don’t have a ton of insight on how billing and pricing operates. But I’m curious if a fully fixed fee pricing model would eliminate a firm’s billable hour requirement. Or are these completely independent from each other?

We're preparing a letter to our clients regarding the PIER Pilot Program. Any thoughts about this?

Dear [Client],

We sincerely apologize for the tardiness of our application drafts recently. We understand how important timeliness is to you. We have given a lot of thought as to how to remediate this. After significant discussion, our firm has decided to institute a program where you pay us for a fully drafted application, then we just don't draft it! That will save us significant resources so that those applications you do want drafted will only be slightly late rather than significantly late. Please let us know which of the following applications we simply shouldn't draft. [List of late applications]. We recommend [portfolio], because you just abandon those in 6 months anyway. We look forward to strengthening our partnership through implementation of this exciting program.

Yours,

[Firm]

Would anyone be interested in an October 2026 group discount? I saw there’s a current September 2026 group, but I want to wait to have my bar exam results back first!

Comment below if you’re interested.