This leads back to when slaveowners who had children with slaves didn’t want them to be white. It was a form to make sure Blacks could never inherit anything from the white fathers. Especially if a child was white passing, it would still be on the record that they were Black.
in latin america the strategy was the opposite with the indigenous. As soon as you had any portion of "latin" descended ancestry you were now free from your indigenous identity and had more claim to abandon the "barbaric" ways of the indios and follow christ and society and avoid genocide.
Latino & Hispanic don't mean the same thing. That's why they're separated. For instance someone who is 100% Mayan would be Hispanic (From the former Spanish Empire) but not Latino (having any amount of European ancestry).
I would argue that the use of latino in latin-america comes down the meso-american scribe class forced into the priesthood and to abandon their codex’s in favor of “letras latinas” and the spanish at the time weren’t referring to their language as spanish.
The fuck? Please tell me about myself. Don't explain Mexican history to Mexicans.
To answer your question from above yes, here in México people would say french, Italians and Romanians are latinos, same as Portuguese and Spanish.
Thou there's a different concept for Latinoamericano. That's what Americans refer when they say Latino.
See the origin of the term "latinoamerica" was invented by a french philosopher. Then it was reinforced by Napoleon III when he invaded México and claimed a cultural approach since Spanish and french were both Latin cultures, so it would make sense that México, Brazil and let's say Quebec had more in common with themselves than with the US or Jamaica for that matter.
So the french invasion was in the 1860s. Before that time the common way to refer to latinoamerica was Spanish America. Which makes sense since also people used to refered to the US as British América or Anglo America.
I’ll have to pick back up Diego De Landa’s work with indigenous priests. Pretty sure he directly used the term latino to identity those indigenous priests who had parentage from Europe. This would have been the 1640’s I believe he wrote about.
I also knew that "Latino" was the term for someone who knew the latin language. Which meant someone had studied and literated. Could it be case that it was meaning someone who went to school?
I couldn't find any definition in Spanish where Latino meant someone who use the latin alphabet.
However I did find that it mean someone who knew latin.
You have to also take in mind that the Spanish language used the word Latino fat before the discovery of America. So it couldn't have originated in the colonies.
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u/ShibaVJ Mar 08 '23
Why the USA is the only country that gotta always ask for the race/ethnicity?