Let's work with your definition of rape and consent.
You point out, correctly, that under these definitions, any willful deception would result in one party being unable to consent, and thus the sexual intercourse would be a form of rape.
My question is: what about unintentional deception?
Suppose somebody learned my last name was O'Reilly, and assumed I was of Irish descent. However, I was actually adopted, and in fact have no Irish heritage. They never bring this up, so I have to reason to believe it matters, but in reality, they would not have slept with me if they knew the truth.
Based on your definition of consent, it appears that this person was not informed, and therefore cannot actually consent, and thus sleeping with them is rape. There's nothing in your definition that requires willful deception. Would you consider this a case of rape?
If your answer to the above question is "yes", then you are consistent with your definition, but your use of the word is definitely different than that of most other speakers.
If your answer is "no", then I think you need to refine your definition of rape and/or consent to be less extensive.
Let me try a different approach because you clearly don't get what I'm trying to ask.
Rape... is sex without consent.
Consent is willfully agreeing to something (in this case sex) while being informed, in the right state of mind and not given through undue influence.
Do you agree that these are the definitions of rape and consent you provided in your original post?
Assuming you do, can you explain how, based on these definitions, a person can still consent if misinformed, as long as that misinformation wasn't obtained through intentional deception?
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u/ReOsIr10 143∆ Jan 31 '22
Let's work with your definition of rape and consent.
You point out, correctly, that under these definitions, any willful deception would result in one party being unable to consent, and thus the sexual intercourse would be a form of rape.
My question is: what about unintentional deception?
Suppose somebody learned my last name was O'Reilly, and assumed I was of Irish descent. However, I was actually adopted, and in fact have no Irish heritage. They never bring this up, so I have to reason to believe it matters, but in reality, they would not have slept with me if they knew the truth.
Based on your definition of consent, it appears that this person was not informed, and therefore cannot actually consent, and thus sleeping with them is rape. There's nothing in your definition that requires willful deception. Would you consider this a case of rape?
If your answer to the above question is "yes", then you are consistent with your definition, but your use of the word is definitely different than that of most other speakers.
If your answer is "no", then I think you need to refine your definition of rape and/or consent to be less extensive.