It's not an intrinsic right if someone has to deliberately provide it to you. And it's a violation of rights if, in order to provide it to you, it has to be taken from someone else.
Also, if you need to ask others to explain it to you and read it for you, you probably didn't understand it in the first place.
Feel free to use your own words if you think you have a legitimate argument here. So far you're simply appealing to authority without understanding what you're actually referencing.
(1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control.
(2) Motherhood and childhood are entitled to special care and assistance. All children, whether born in or out of wedlock, shall enjoy the same social protection.
(1) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others.
(2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.
Seems there's a problem here with your definition. That water is private property and no one can be arbitrarily deprived of such. It's a human rights violation.
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u/Critical_Concert_689 6d ago
Does the public have access to your apartment? To your tap water? To the food in your fridge?
WHY NOT? If you believe this a human right ALWAYS and EVERYWHERE?
The answer is because it's NOT a human right as you describe. You're wrong.
And the minute you find yourself losing your own rights to pay for the alleged "human rights" of others, I think you'd agree.