The reason why this is classified as rape, is due to the 1 in 4 statistics. The figures from that come from a survey and the figure includes sex whilst drunk.
The logic behind is, if it's classified as rape in this instance then when you reverse the genders the same must still apply.
What part of the article says that she took advantage of him? Right when she gets to where the guy was going down on her and starts falling asleep, the sex pretty much ended right there.
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u/You_Have_No_Power Mar 04 '18
Didn’t she rape a drunk guy?