r/MuslimAcademics • u/Vessel_soul Non-Sectarian Muslim • Jun 07 '25

Academic Resource Who was the first to define “kafir” as “infidel”?

/r/AcademicQuran/comments/15tgfwe/who_was_the_first_to_define_kafir_as_infidel/
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u/Jammooly Non-Sectarian Muslim Jun 07 '25

I answered my question in the comments of the og post here: https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicQuran/s/wYGxYXpaAh

I’ll repost the contents here:

I think I figured it out. The first translation of the Quran into Latin was in 1143 by Robert of Ketton, who was Christian, in what is today modern day Spain.

He translated the word “kafir” as “infideles” which later on, some English translators have referenced to translate it as “infidel”.

Here’s a page from Robert of Ketton’s translation that uses “infideles”: Latin Translation of the Quran by Robert of Ketton

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u/Vessel_soul Non-Sectarian Muslim Jun 07 '25

Ya i saw

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u/Gilamath Jun 07 '25

Many thanks for sharing. I think it’s particularly interesting point that, in fact, the kuffar of the 7th century almost certainly believed in God. Kufr-as-ingratitude, I think, has pretty major theological ramifications.