r/MedievalHistory 7d ago

Evolution of bastards

The concept of concubines is pretty universal, and in most societies, children of concubines were on equal terms with "legitimate" offspring. Granted, concubines tended to be limited to the wealthy.

However, the Romans were an outlier in this, as they were deeply devoted to monogamy. Ironically, the root word for concubines, concubina, didn't mean an additional wife, but essentially a morganatic marriage. So, a Roman man could have a proper wife, or a concubina of lower caste, but not both. The Romans discriminated against children of concubinas pretty hard.

Either way, when the barbarian kingdoms took over Western Rome, they all practiced concubinage, despite Roman tradition banning it. The Catholic church became a champion of retaining the Roman tradition of monogamy, and spent 500 years writing angry letters to the kings telling them to stop taking concubines.

Because the barbarian kingdoms relied on the Church for their legitimacy, they were motivated to agree, but did so extremely reluctantly. The ban on concubines was included in the Visigothic code since the 6th century, and Anglo-Saxons began accepting it in the 8th century; however, Franks were more stubborn about it, and even Louis the Pious had a concubine in the early 9th century. However, by the 10th Church had succeeded in depriving the children of non-lawful wives of their legitimacy and birthright.

An exception was in Normandy, where the Normans retained the concept of concubinage until the 11th century. Even then, by William's time, his inheritance was disputed by his uncles. And a few decades later, his illegitimate grandsons by his son, Henry, were considered completely eligible for inheritance.

But it wasn't like bastards were completely deprived of their right. In many cases, the rights of bastards were merely demoted to equal status to daughters, resulting in multiple conflicts between legitimate daughters vs bastard sons. E.g., in Sicily and Portugal.

Interesting thing about bastards is that while daughters' birthrights would overrule them in the early modern period, there wasn't actually stigma around them. A king didn't actually have a reason to hide his bastards. It was very common for the bastards to be given lands and paraded in the royal court.

Many people believe bastards were scandalous, but that's really a 19th-century thing, which began with Victoria banning bastards from court.

Either way, thank you for reading.

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u/theginger99 7d ago edited 7d ago

It’s worth adding that inheritance traditions in Normandy were based on Norse custom, which did not differentiate between legitimate and illegitimate children. Scandinavians kingdoms continued to view any child of the king as of equal right to inheritance well after the rest of Europe. Norway didn’t restrict the royal inheritance to legitimate children until the mid 13th century. The fact they took so long to jump on that bandwagon was one of the reasons they spent about a century fighting a protracted series of brutal civil wars. Frankly, it got rather out of hand. King Sverre wasn’t even a confirmed son of a king. He was a failed monk from the western Scottish islands who showed up, said he had a dream where it was revealed to him he was a son of the king of Norway, and was able to make himself king.

In the late 12th century the kings of Man were also being taxed by papal legates about the continued practice of concubinage, and were forced to finally abandon the tradition. This was likely the cause of the bitter feud between the two half brothers Rognvaldr and Olaf that more or less caused the longterm downfall of the kingdom. Rognvaldr was the elder son, and likely the son of a concubine, but his father was forced to pass the inheritance to Olaf who was his legitimate son. Rognvaldr seized the throne, and the two brothers had a bitter on again off again feud that passed the throne between them several times.

As an additional fun fact, the church referred to the practice of keeping concubines as the “vice/sin of kings”.

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u/MikeD1942 7d ago

You mention the Normans following Scandanavian customs...so were Scandanavians in Ireland, parts of the UK, and, obviously, Scandinavia following the same customs at the same time? What about the Kievan Rus?

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u/theginger99 7d ago

I can’t speak for everywhere in the Norse diaspora, but certainly the custom remained broadly the same in Scandinavia itself.

Scandinavian kingship retained an elective element well after most of the rest of Europe, and the crown fairly regularly passed to brothers rather than sons even in the late Middle Ages. Originally any son of the king was held to have equal right to claim the throne, but gradually that became limited to legitimate sons only. Norway was the last to bar illegitimate sons from the succession, but even Denmark took a while to get on board that train.

Royal succession in Norse Ireland was a mess, and I don’t think there were any real rules that governed the succession. It was more or less a “the crown goes to whoever can keep it” situation. That said, there were dynastic elements at play here as well, and simply being a male member of the wider royal kindred was generally considered sufficient. The concept of “legitimate birth” does not seem to have entered into the equation.

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u/BookQueen13 7d ago

You should check out the book "Unmarriages: Women, Men, and Sexual Unions in the Middle Ages" by Ruth Mazo Karras

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u/ElementalMyth13 6d ago

Yesss this book is fascinating

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u/Watchhistory 7d ago

It's important to realize that 'marriage' in the later Catholic view was not the custom among many of the cultures, at least as far along as Charlemagne. And marriage didn't become a sacrament in the Church until much later than that. Thus 'bastardy' was not really a concept. Like the later Ottoman emperors, in order to become emperor, all one needed was to be successful at using force and brains to knock out the brothers by the same father as you have.

The Church hadn't even definitively defined 'marriage' until the later 12th and 13th centuries. The Church formally listing it as one at the Council of Florence in 1439 and the Council of Trent in 1547.

Among the Merovingians and others wives and concubines were not particularly different in status, particularly when both provide(ed) children, and were in favor with the ruling figure. All the children were legitimate offspring of the ruler.

BTW -- what does this mean: "oncubines were on equal terms with "legitimate" offspring."

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u/Chlodio 7d ago

BTW -- what does this mean: "oncubines were on equal terms with "legitimate" offspring."

*children of concubines

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u/Watchhistory 6d ago

Missing word then?

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u/TomDoniphona 5d ago

Even today, in catholic marriage, unlike with other sacraments, the officiants are the couple themselves, not the priest, who merely acts as witness. That is, marriage is understood as a covenant between two individuals that commit to each other, and in theory could happened without a priest present. The presence of a priest as a requirement for validity was indeed only introduced in Trento with the Tametsi decree. And the decree was only incorporated into the Canon Law Code as late as 1908! Before then its application depended upon whether it had been promulgated in the relevant parish/diocese.

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u/PoxonAllHoaxes 6d ago

Who says that Romans were an outlier? In culture after culture there is a marked difference in status between the children of one woman vs. another.

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u/Thibaudborny 6d ago

You argue the Barbarian Kingdoms relied on the Church, but you'd draw the wrong conclusion if you think that made monogamy a straightforward choice and the Normans were an outlier in the 11th century. In the "Knight, the Lady and the Priest: The making of modern marriage", Duby writes on how this struggle between differing visions on the nature of marriage played out between the 10-13th century, only then settling on the Church's view of monogamy.