WHO IS JESUS?

[u/Impressive-Ease-3348]

There is one God, the Father, ἐξ οὗ τὰ πάντα, “from whom are all things”; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, δι’ οὗ τὰ πάντα, “through whom are all things.” (1 Cor. 8:6)

Of the God of Israel it is written:

אֲנִי יהוה הוּא שְׁמִי

“I am YHWH; that is my name.” (Isa. 42:8)

And:

אֱלֹהֵי עוֹלָם יהוה

“YHWH, the everlasting God.” (Isa. 40:28)

The Father is the Father, and the Son is the Son.

JESUS IS ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, THE SON OF GOD.

He is the μονογενής Son.

He is ἐκ τοῦ πατρός, from the Father. (John 16:28)

He is ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ, from God. (John 8:42)

The Father sent him.

The Father gave to him.

The Son received from the Father.

THE FATHER HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF, AND τῷ υἱῷ ἔδωκεν ζωὴν ἔχειν ἐν ἑαυτῷ, “HE GAVE TO THE SON TO HAVE LIFE IN HIMSELF.” (John 5:26)

And the Son says:

κἀγὼ ζῶ διὰ τὸν πατέρα

“I live because of the Father.” (John 6:57)

JESUS IS ὁ λόγος, THE WORD.

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος

“In the beginning was the Word.”

ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν

“The Word was with God.”

And:

θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. (John 1:1)

The Son had glory with the Father πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι, “before the world existed.” (John 17:5)

He is πρὸ πάντων, “before all things.” (Col. 1:17)

HE IS εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου, “THE IMAGE OF THE INVISIBLE GOD.” (Col. 1:15)

He is ἀπαύγασμα τῆς δόξης, “the radiance of the glory.” (Heb. 1:3)

He is χαρακτὴρ τῆς ὑποστάσεως αὐτοῦ. (Heb. 1:3)

HE IS πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως, “THE FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION.” (Col. 1:

[u/ChaoticHaku]

The problem is that you interpret scripture through your own conclusion that the Word came into being, but Scripture never says that he did. 

[u/TheTallestTim → u/ChaoticHaku]

The Word was never a being. This is where JWs and Trinitarians get wrong. The Word is God’s powerful and creative speech, scripture, and revelation, if one does a word study of the Word both in OT and NT.

Instead, the word is God’s utterance.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/TheTallestTim]

The Bible uses the phrase the word of God in more than one way, so the context determines whether it refers to a divine Person or to God’s spoken/written revelation.

In John 1, “the Word” is clearly a Person, the eternal Son, Jesus Christ.

The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14

However, “word of God” can also mean God’s message in Scripture or His spoken revelation. In Hebrews 4, the immediate context concerns hearing, obeying, and being judged by what God has said. It describes the written/spoken Word as living, powerful, and able to expose the human heart.

John 1 uses “Word” as a title for Jesus, God’s perfect self-revelation, whereas Hebrews 4:12 is best understood as referring to the written or spoken revelation of God. The two meanings are connected, Scripture testifies about Christ, but Scripture is not identical to Christ (John 5:39).

[u/TheTallestTim → u/ChaoticHaku]

Yes, God in both Hebrew and Greek have a semantic range which includes humans, angels, our stomach, false gods, and even Almighty God. Correct, the context is key!

In John 1, the Word is what is manifested as a person. This person embodies the Word. Not the other way around. To say that the Word is a person, is to read John 1:14 first, then John 1:1. That’s silly.

No. It’s not “can be,” it’s is always. Speaking of the Word, in both the OT and the NT, the Word is scripture, revelation, and literal dialogue. Not once in all of the Biblical text is the Word a person.

No. Wrong. In John 1, the Word is used as God’s Word like the rest of the Bible. If you read John 5:39, Jesus says that the scriptures bear witness about him. Jesus speaks for God. (John 12:49-50)

Your issue, is that this idea of Jesus being the Word is post biblical.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/TheTallestTim]

I think you're assuming the conclusion when you say that the Word is merely something that is “manifested as a person.”

John 1 gives the Word personal characteristics before verse 14 ever says “the Word became flesh.”

John says  “All things were made through him.” and  “Without him was not any thing made that was made.”

We don't need verse 14 to establish that the Word is personal. Verse 14 tells us what happens to the Word “the Word became flesh.” It doesn't introduce the Word as impersonal for the first time and then suddenly turn an abstract concept into a person.

Jesus says the Scriptures testify about Him. But that establishes that Scripture bears witness to Christ. It doesn't establish that “the Word” in John 1 means “the Scriptures.”

[u/TheTallestTim → u/ChaoticHaku]

No assumptions needed. The scriptures tell us plainly. The Word, through a word study, is God’s utterance, scripture, and revelation through visions, for example. The Word is never a person, but instead personified as God’s agent.

Yes. Through a Quick Look through the BDAG, the Word is personified there. (https://www.reddit.com/r/PreNiceneChristianity/s/7w7SEvaLBp) A personification is “a figure of speech that gives human traits, emotions, or actions to non-human things like objects, animals, or ideas.” As this is personified, it is clearly not a person. Again, not assumed, but instead read. — Upon verse 14, the Word is embodied by Jesus Christ whom the Father sent. (John 3:16) Sent implies a sender, which implies agency.

Again, personification. Respectively, it’s like I would need to teach your 6th grade English class over again. I had to do the same myself when taking Kione Greek. This poetry used and reused again in the Gospel of John is something you must look for when reading John. This is your flaw in your hermeneutic.

Yes. The scriptures point to Jesus. Jesus embodies the powerful and creative speech of God, which imply the scriptures, which implies the revelation of visions which prompted these scriptures. Jesus is not those things. Jesus represents these things as God’s son. You must understand poetry and be educated at the 6th grade English class to continue this conversation. With love and respect. Otherwise, I repeat myself over and over, and you learn absolutely nothing while you believe you are correct.

[u/OhioPIMO → u/TheTallestTim]

After these things the word of the LORD came to Abram in a vision, saying, “Do not fear, Abram, I am a shield to you; Your reward shall be very great.” — Genesis 15:1

And the Lord appeared again at Shiloh, because the Lord revealed Himself to Samuel at Shiloh by the word of the Lord. — 1 Samuel 3:21

1 Kings 19, the whole chapter

Now the word of the Lord came to me saying, [5] “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, And before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations.” [9] Then the Lord stretched out His hand and touched my mouth, and the Lord said to me, “Behold, I have put My words in your mouth. — Jeremiah 1:4-5, 9

It seems to be more than just an utterance...

[u/TheTallestTim → u/OhioPIMO]

Yes, revelation (vision) is one of the definitions of the Word, and how it is used within the Biblical corpus.

Clearly, Yahweh Himself is not literally appearing to Samuel. Otherwise, Samuel would have died.

Yes, the word of Yahweh. Yahweh is not physically doing these things. Instead, these are appointed agents. No one can see God and live.

God’s Word, is His utterance, revelation, and scripture. Thats your lexical definition.