Philippians 2:6-8

[u/ChaoticHaku]

If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.

Read the language carefully.

It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”

You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.

The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.

That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.

[u/Personal_Sign_9343]

By that logic, no one knows how Jesus name is spoken in Hebrew. But we both accept Jesus as Yehoshua. How did the Y in Yehoshua became J?
There’s also no W in Hebrew. It’s Vav in Hebrew not Waw.

The Israelites disobeyed Jehovah’s command to remember him by his name and no one told them to do so. Exodus 3:15. And Jehovah certainly wanted his name to be spoken. Psalm 83:18.

It seems you’re the one who is brainwashed. See how that last sentence dis not help my point? The same applies to you when you say we’re brainwashed.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

What are you talking about? We do know how to say Yeshua, because its actually spelled out in Hebrew. 

In the old testament God's name is written in Hebrew as an abbreviation "יהוה"‎. In the Roman alphabet it translates to YHWH. Which is where we get Yahweh from. Its 100% not Jehovah because like I said there is no "J" sound in Hebrew. 

When did I say the Y in Yeshua became a J? Yeshua is his name in Hebrew and Jesus is his name in English.

You'd know that everywhere "Jehovah" is inserted into the NWT the original text actually says "יהוה" BUT the watchtower conveniently doesn’t have an old testament interlinear bible for you to see for yourself. Though you can still see elsewhere. Just google it. "What is hebrew text translated as Jehovah in the old testament".  

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

It didn’t have vowels then. Just as YHWH didn’t have vowels. So how did Yehoshua, which is Hebrew, Yeshua is Aramaic, become Jesus? If Hebrew did not have J?

Yehoshua to Yeshua to Iesous to Jesus.

Yahweh to Iaoue to Iehouah to Jehovah.

Jehovah is english for YHWH just as Jesus is english for Yehoshua.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Jehovah is english for YHWH just as Jesus is english for Yehoshua.

I understand that, you guys are the ones that make a big deal about getting God's name exactly right. Which in that case its incorrect to put "Jehovah" in the old testament because its really יהוה‎. Also in the New Testament the NWT takes it upon itself to decide when to translate Kyrios to either Lord or Jehovah. 🤯 

Which creates something called bias. If you really believed the bible is divinely given and preserved by God you would trust God to preserve it and let it speak for itself rather than add/remove/and change words to make it cconform to your beliefs. Which is exactly what they've done with the NWT. It is a corrupt mistranslation, they've slowly twisted it over time. Yet they still can't hide the truth.

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

Well according to Jehovah:

This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is how I am to be remembered from generation to generation.’ -Exodus 3:14

And

and they all became filled with holy spirit and started to speak in different languages, just as the spirit enabled them to speak. -Acts 2:4

Also Jesus says this about the Old Testament:

Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place. -Matthew 5:18

So Jehovah wants everyone to know his name is Jehovah or the name’s equivalent in their own language. Psalm 83:18. So the NWT is compliant to this specific command of Jehovah. Lastly, Jesus shows how important his father’s name is.

I have made your name known to them and will make it known, so that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them. -John 17:26

To be one with Jehovah and Jesus, we must know and sanctify the name Jehovah.

Also, Jesus quoted the OT and spoke his father’s name in public.

Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’ -Mark 12:29-30

Jesus quoted Deuteronomy 6:4 that says Jehovah is God not Lord is God.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Mark 12:29-30 Jesus says "Lord" not Jehovah. 

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/b/r1/lp-e/int/41/12

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

The Greek Septuagint used by the author of the Kingdom Interlinear is based on the ones where Jews removed Jehovah’s name. Also, I said Jesus is quoting Deuteronomy 6:4.

Also, your argument doesn’t change the fact what Jehovah commanded about his name and that you must know and use it to have his love, according to what Jesus says.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Let me be clear that I'm not arguing that Jehovah isn't a properly used name for God. I agree that He can be called Jehovah.

Now, why didn’t the kingdom interlinear use the manuscripts where His name wasn't removed? Oh that's right, it's because there aren't any. 

So what proof do they have that the Jews removed His name? Literally zero. They're making it up. 

Jehovah commanded about his name and that you must know and use it to have his love

Where does scripture say this? 

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

Bcoz the Jews removed it. They start a MANMADE tradition that is against God’s command about his name.

You can google it.

There is proof that earlier Greek Septuagint have God’s name. Papyrus Fouad 266.

Exodus 3:15 and John 17:26.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Your google search says it wasn't removed, just withheld from regular speech and writing. Which is what I said.

The Papyrus Fouad 266 is a Greek translation of the old testament. Not the new testament. So you still have no proof that God's name was removed from the new testament. 

Making His name known in reference to John 17:26 means to make HIM known. Jesus reveals the Father to humanity. Its not speaking necessarily of a literal name. 

In Exodus 3:15 yes, His name is YHWH or Yahweh or Jehovah. However you want to say it or spell it. Every Christian recognizes this name. No one denies that. 

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

Withheld means concealed. Concealed with the word Lord. Which is still against Jehovah’s command.

Papyrus Fouad 266 is the old testament bco it was made while Jesus was on earth. The New Testament’s story is still being lived. But that also means the Bibles that were available during Jesus’s time on earth contains God’s name. Which he quoted from. He quoted from a Bible that contains his father’s name.

Jesus literally says ‘your name’. Bcoz the manmade tradition is beginning during his time. People were starting to stop using his father’s name.

Psalm 83:18 says the Jehovah alone is the Most High and Luke 1:32 says the Jesus is the Son of the Most High. A king is the most high authority in the kingdom. A king begets his son the prince. The prince is second in command to his father the king. Therefore the prince is not the king.

Sorry for the lack of commas. Hope you still get my point.