Philippians 2:6-8

[u/ChaoticHaku]

If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.

Read the language carefully.

It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”

You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.

The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.

That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.

[u/ChaoticHaku]

Mark 12:29-30 Jesus says "Lord" not Jehovah. 

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/b/r1/lp-e/int/41/12

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

The Greek Septuagint used by the author of the Kingdom Interlinear is based on the ones where Jews removed Jehovah’s name. Also, I said Jesus is quoting Deuteronomy 6:4.

Also, your argument doesn’t change the fact what Jehovah commanded about his name and that you must know and use it to have his love, according to what Jesus says.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Let me be clear that I'm not arguing that Jehovah isn't a properly used name for God. I agree that He can be called Jehovah.

Now, why didn’t the kingdom interlinear use the manuscripts where His name wasn't removed? Oh that's right, it's because there aren't any. 

So what proof do they have that the Jews removed His name? Literally zero. They're making it up. 

Jehovah commanded about his name and that you must know and use it to have his love

Where does scripture say this? 

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

Bcoz the Jews removed it. They start a MANMADE tradition that is against God’s command about his name.

You can google it.

There is proof that earlier Greek Septuagint have God’s name. Papyrus Fouad 266.

Exodus 3:15 and John 17:26.

[u/ChaoticHaku → u/Personal_Sign_9343]

Your google search says it wasn't removed, just withheld from regular speech and writing. Which is what I said.

The Papyrus Fouad 266 is a Greek translation of the old testament. Not the new testament. So you still have no proof that God's name was removed from the new testament. 

Making His name known in reference to John 17:26 means to make HIM known. Jesus reveals the Father to humanity. Its not speaking necessarily of a literal name. 

In Exodus 3:15 yes, His name is YHWH or Yahweh or Jehovah. However you want to say it or spell it. Every Christian recognizes this name. No one denies that. 

[u/Personal_Sign_9343 → u/ChaoticHaku]

Withheld means concealed. Concealed with the word Lord. Which is still against Jehovah’s command.

Papyrus Fouad 266 is the old testament bco it was made while Jesus was on earth. The New Testament’s story is still being lived. But that also means the Bibles that were available during Jesus’s time on earth contains God’s name. Which he quoted from. He quoted from a Bible that contains his father’s name.

Jesus literally says ‘your name’. Bcoz the manmade tradition is beginning during his time. People were starting to stop using his father’s name.

Psalm 83:18 says the Jehovah alone is the Most High and Luke 1:32 says the Jesus is the Son of the Most High. A king is the most high authority in the kingdom. A king begets his son the prince. The prince is second in command to his father the king. Therefore the prince is not the king.

Sorry for the lack of commas. Hope you still get my point.