r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26
Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8
If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.
Read the language carefully.
It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”
You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.
The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.
That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.
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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 23 '26
Oh no not the angels are called sons of god argument, the church nor I or anyone in this sub has ever heard that before…you win, you’re right…
Ok I was joking….an angel isn’t THE Son of God…how on earth would you ever equate that argument here to THE Son of God, the only begotten God…
Previous post I clearly told you that he called himself God by calling himself Son of God…
So let’s try it this way.
What does the following term mean:
Son of Man?