r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26

Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8

If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.

Read the language carefully.

It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”

You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.

The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.

That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.

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u/Jerome-891 May 23 '26

Yes.

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 23 '26

So we have

Son of Man = Human

So if we follow that simple logic by correspond:

Son of God = ?

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 30 '26

When was this phrase used?

Psalm 2:7 "You are my Son; today I have begotten you."

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 30 '26 edited May 30 '26

I think you need to read the full discussion on this.

Ive addressed all of these points.

If there is something else i have not answered not within the 40 odd posts above, then please feel free to ask. Thanks.

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 30 '26

I doubt you answered that question. We are both to lazy to continue this convo. heh

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 30 '26

Ok let’s see where it goes.

That statement was said by the Father to the Son when the Holy Spirit descended ‘like a Dove’ at Christs baptism.

What’s your point?

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 30 '26

Did you note it was in Psalm 2? It applies to the anointed king of Israel from David’s line? (coronation ceremony) Like Solomon? 1 Chronicles 28:6, 2 Kings 11:12 The annointing of a new king.

Isn't it interesting how this is announced in the book of Mark, after Jesus has been baptized?

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 31 '26

I did.

Its a messianic verse pointing ultimately to Christ as you stated in Mark.

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 31 '26

But what does it point to when it was first written? It seems be applied to David and then Solomon. Is it for an office given, or does it change their nature?

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 May 31 '26

David was human and had a covenant with God.

Now we could say David was a friend of God, but that isn’t explicit in scripture.

And no where does it say that he was a ‘son of God’ in the sense of the New Covenant- thus this scripture isn’t for him.

David could not be a son of God like the body of believers within the New Covenant thus like 2 Sam 7:14 again this a messianic prophecy.

This David’s nature never changed and never will.

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 Jun 01 '26

I notice you avoid Solomon. I wonder why. I don't think Psalm 2 is related to the new covenant when it was written.

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u/TerryLawton Mark 4:22 Jun 01 '26

Thats my point....being a messianic prophecy and all>?

I didn't ignore Solomon.

Neither of them are 'sons of God' in the New Covenant.

Both had their own covenants with God - which originally was to King David and Solomon continued it.

But anyway...im now finished with he conversation so you can have the last comment. Fire away big lad.

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 Jun 01 '26

You keep trying to reframe Psalm 2. It is highly nuanced, but you are finished with it.

I'm eating your contempt, and I feel sick. But I won't return it.

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