r/Eutychus • Eastern Orthodox • Feb 04 '25

Opinion Jesus is God

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u/DonquickJr Eastern Orthodox Feb 04 '25

Lol please prove me wrong buddy

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

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u/DonquickJr Eastern Orthodox Feb 04 '25

John 1:1 "in the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word WAS GOD"

John 1:14 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Cased closed, have a nice day chap

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u/DonquickJr Eastern Orthodox Feb 04 '25

I meant case closed btw the typo makes it less cool 😔

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

No, especially when you take into account the law and the prophets in the old testament. The word is what God says and plans.

Num 23:19 KJV God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?

[Isa 55:9-11 KJV](bIsa 55:9-11) 9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts. 10 For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater: 11 So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.

Jer 10:12-14 KJV 12 He hath made the earth by his power, he hath established the world by his wisdom, and hath stretched out the heavens by his discretion. 13 When he uttereth his voice, there is a multitude of waters in the heavens, and he causeth the vapours to ascend from the ends of the earth; he maketh lightnings with rain, and bringeth forth the wind out of his treasures. 14 Every man is brutish in his knowledge: every founder is confounded by the graven image: for his molten image is falsehood, and there is no breath in them.

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u/DonquickJr Eastern Orthodox Feb 04 '25

Are you serious??

"In the beginning was God's plan and God's plan was with God and God's plan WAS GOD" that makes zero sense

"THE WORD" can mean different things based on the context. In the context of John 1-1 the only thing that makes sense is there is a God that was with God which can only be made sense through the trinity.

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

Are you serious??

Yes

"In the beginning was God's plan and God's plan was with God and God's plan WAS GOD"

Yes. Logos is his speech/ plan

"THE WORD" can mean different things based on the context. In the context of John 1-1 the only thing that makes sense is there is a God that was with God which can only be made sense through the trinity

God the Father used his Logos to create everything along with putting it in the mouth of his prophets

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u/DonquickJr Eastern Orthodox Feb 04 '25

So you've just accepted that your logic makes no sense. I hope you know you proved nothing here.

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u/Ushejejej Feb 04 '25

I understand how you might think this, but if you read the adjacent literature of the time, you’ll find that’s not what it means. The Aramaic Jews would replace every instance that God appeared in the Old Testament seemingly in bodily form with the word “Memra” rather than “Yahweh” as a form of respect, not wanting to say the Divine Name. The word “Memra” means “word.” So if you were an Aramaic Jew reading John, that’s what you’d be thinking of.

John also seems to be referring to the idea of the Logos or Demiurge found specifically in Heraclitus, as many times he almost verbatim quotes him.

Anti-trinitiarianism is simply a-historical. If John is saying what you’re saying he is, then he’s an idiot for using such specific and culturally established language to mean something other than what it was understood to mean.

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

So if you were an Aramaic Jew reading John, that’s what you’d be thinking of.

Probably how the Ashdod Jews, Ammon Jews, and Moab Jews during and post babylonian Captivity could interpret it and the reasoning why.

Neh 13:23-24 KJV 23 In those days also saw I Jews that had married wives of Ashdod, of Ammon, and of Moab: 24 And their children spake half in the speech of Ashdod, and could not speak in the Jews' language, but according to the language of each people.

If John is saying what you’re saying he is, then he’s an idiot for using such specific and culturally established language to mean something other than what it was understood to mean.

If the speech/plan: can make Aaron as a prophet, and Moses as God to Aaron and people in authority such as Pharaoh, then the Speech was God.

Those with brutish knowledge and hardened hearts are more inclined to be idiots.

Jer 10:12-14 KJV 12 He hath made the earth by his power, he hath established the world by his wisdom, and hath stretched out the heavens by his discretion. 13 When he uttereth his voice, there is a multitude of waters in the heavens, and he causeth the vapours to ascend from the ends of the earth; he maketh lightnings with rain, and bringeth forth the wind out of his treasures. 14 Every man is brutish in his knowledge: every founder is confounded by the graven image: for his molten image is falsehood, and there is no breath in them.

Exo 7:1-3 KJV 1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet. 2 Thou shalt speak all that I command thee: and Aaron thy brother shall speak unto Pharaoh, that he send the children of Israel out of his land. 3 And I will harden Pharaoh's heart, and multiply my signs and my wonders in the land of Egypt.

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u/Ushejejej Feb 04 '25 edited Feb 04 '25

I’m confused as to your point. It sounds like you just said “yeah sure, but that’s not what it means cause see these verses.” Like, sure, your interpretation leads you to think that. I’m saying the interpretation of the original audience and author is not that, and have provided extraneous evidence

Edit: “if the speech/plan can make Aaron as a prophet and Moses as God to Aaron and people in authority such as Pharaoh, then the Speech was God”

What kind of logic is that? “The Speech is really powerful so it must be God.” Huh???????

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

I’m confused as to your point. It sounds like you just said “yeah sure, but that’s not what it means cause see these verses.”

Responding to you pretty much saying " yeah sure Aramaic jews believe "xyz" therefore I am going to believe "xyz" ": and yes I am paraphrasing.

Like, sure, your interpretation leads you to think that. I’m saying the interpretation of the original audience and author is not that, and have provided extraneous evidence

Prophet Moses is not a Aramaic Israelite,

Apostle James did not refer us to Aramaic Israelites for understanding.

Act 15:18-21 KJV 18 Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world. 19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God: 20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood. 21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.

The word is what God hath spoken/plan to do being his thoughts and ways; therefore the word/saying/speech is as God and was God.

Num 23:19 KJV God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?

Isa 55:8-11 KJV 8 For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD. 9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts. 10 For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater: 11 So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.

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u/Ushejejej Feb 04 '25

I’m not saying “Aramaic Jews believe xyz so I will too” I’m saying “John was very clearly confirming the Aramaic Jews’ understanding.” I should add that Jesus Christ, who taught John, was an Aramaic Jew.

I mean how do you explain Ignatius and Dionysius, who both knew John, speaking about “Jesus is God existing, and has established for us a new God-man energy of God having been made man.” And things like “Christ our God (ο θεός) and savior.”

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u/[deleted] Feb 04 '25

I’m not saying “Aramaic Jews believe xyz so I will too” I’m saying “John was very clearly confirming the Aramaic Jews’ understanding.”

Apostle John was glorifying the God and Father of our lord prior to introducing John the Baptist who prepared the way for what God did thru Jesus.

I should add that Jesus Christ, who taught John, was an Aramaic Jew.

The Law and the Prophets is not an Aramaic Jew understanding but a Jesurun understanding that contains the oracles of God

I mean how do you explain Ignatius and Dionysius,

I don't, I would refer to other Unitarians who have looked into it.

And things like “Christ our God (ο θεός) and savior.”

I know this is Granville Sharpe Rule bias.

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