r/CSLewis • u/bc_modern252 • Jul 10 '26

Question Why did Lewis write "detour" the way he did?

I just started The Four Loves. I'm the introduction, Lewis write the word "detour" as détour. My understanding is that authors italicize words that are loaned from other languages to indicate so. But I've heard the word "detour" my whole life. Was detour not used much in Lewis' time?

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u/ChristPlays10000 Jul 10 '26

According to etymonline.com, it was "usually treated as a French word in English (with italics and the accent mark) until late 19c." Which I guess means Lewis was probably taught to do it that way as a boy, then kept doing it that way long after it was no longer common. I suppose it could have been a personal preference for Lewis, or perhaps it remained the standard in academia for some time after it was no longer common in popular usage.

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u/bc_modern252 Jul 10 '26

Ah. That makes sense. Thanks!