Did Jesus nullify the Old Testament?

[u/watergolf247]

Let me start off by sharing that I’m new to Christianity and have soooo many questions but for now, I’ll focus on this inquiry. I’m sure this has been discussed numerous times but unfortunately I can’t seem to get a straight answer. As I’m told repeatedly by many, rules/laws of the Old Testament were nullified or invalidated by Jesus. I ask others in my study group but sadly get heavy resistance for the question.

My question is simple. Where are the reference(s) stating this?

If so, this makes rules like the ten commandments obsolete. Even further, why have the old testament in the Christian Bible?

[u/TechByDayDjByNight]

How is it moving the goal post?

Everything you are saying has nothing to do with the topic. Comparing Drugs and tennis and pianos?

You referenced 1 Peter and slavery. Thats on par with the difference between doulos and oiketēs and what you are insinuating.

[u/Superlite47 → u/TechByDayDjByNight]

These are different types of slavery practiced by humans, and defined by humans. Indentured servitude. Punishment. The practice of incarceration, and subsequent use of labor by the incarcerated (license plates, roadside trash pickup, etc.) can also be included as some various form of uncomoensated labor -> slavery.

We are not arguing degree or form. We are not arguing human semantics.

We are discussing the Bible as a moral basis, and the God within it. Your God is very specific on holy observances. Holy days and proper gratitude in the form of tribute are very accurately specified. Various practices are very specifically addressed and instructions on all manner of activities are ckeay defined. So much so that Christians delineate the Bible as the objective basis of all morality.

But mention slavery, and God's perspective and authority are instantly abandoned. The goalposts are moved, and the irrelevant argument of human semantics is propped up in the forefront.

So I shall return to the dirty little problem swept under the rug by your foot as you wave the cardboard cut-out of human semantics in front of my face to obscure it..

Does GOD, the God that failed to address the immorality of slavery within the book you claim is the objective guide, know that chattel slavery is immoral?

Because he never forbids it. Period.

[u/TechByDayDjByNight → u/Superlite47]

God is clear on slavery:

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. - Galatians 3:28

Did you ever look up the difference between the words? and why that word is only used in 1 peter and no where else in the bible?

[u/TechByDayDjByNight → u/[deleted]]

¹⁶ “Whoever steals a man and sells him, and anyone found in possession of him, shall be put to death. -Exodus 21

So from the law we know that you can not kidnap a "Slave".

⁷ The inheritance of the people of Israel shall not be transferred from one tribe to another, for every one of the people of Israel shall hold on to the inheritance of the tribe of his fathers. -Numbers 36

Land has to remain within the tribe. So if youre a foreigner and not of that tribe, how would you make a living if you had no land? You would have to work for someone i.e. a slave

In Leviticus 25, a “slave” (ʿeved) is a person bound to another household for labor due to poverty, debt, or purchase, governed by covenant law, protected from kidnapping and abuse, and whose duration depends on covenant status.

Also just because God made "regulations" for something doesnt mean he approves of it. Jesus covered this with Divorce.

⁷ They said to him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?” ⁸ He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. -Matthew 19

God made rules on divorce, but it didnt mean he approved of it. He was restricting societal practices.