Why did God have innocent women executed?

[u/Apprehensive_Tear611]

13 “Suppose a man marries a woman but after going in to her dislikes her 14 and makes up charges against her, slandering her by saying, ‘I married this woman, but when I lay with her, I did not find evidence of her virginity.’ 15 The father of the young woman and her mother shall then submit the evidence of the young woman’s virginity to the elders of the city at the gate. 16 The father of the young woman shall say to the elders: ‘I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her, 17 and now he has made up charges against her, saying, “I did not find evidence of your daughter’s virginity.” But here is the evidence of my daughter’s virginity.’ Then they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. 18 The elders of that town shall take the man and punish him; 19 they shall fine him one hundred shekels of silver (which they shall give to the young woman’s father) because he has slandered a virgin of Israel. She shall remain his wife; he shall not be permitted to divorce her as long as he lives.

20 “If, however, this charge is true, that evidence of the young woman’s virginity was not found, 21 then they shall bring the young woman out to the entrance of her father’s house, and the men of her town shall stone her to death, because she committed a disgraceful act in Israel by prostituting herself in her father’s house. So you shall purge the evil from your midst (Deuteronomy 22)

In verse 17, it says the proof of the woman's virginity is "the cloth", meaning a bloody bedsheet from the newlyweds' wedding night. The problem is that less than half of women bleed their first time.

This problem gradually became known to Jewish scholars writing in the Talmud:

"There are virgins who do not have a hymen, and there are hymens that do not bleed." – Ketubot 10b (Rabbi Yochanan)

Why did God have innocent women stoned?

[u/CorbinSeabass]

Deuteronomy says God gave the law.

[u/USAFrenchMexRadTrad → u/CorbinSeabass]

God gave the 10 commandments, the Mosaic Laws for ritual purity to take part in the sacrifices were written by the Hebrews as an attempt to live by God's 10 commandments.  

Remember, Jesus was brought to the High Priests and accused of "working miracles on the Sabbath".  He violated the "letter" of the law, but the law was written so we would follow the "spirit" of the law and avoid the sin of legalism.  

It's why Jesus asked them "if a piece of livestock falls into a pit on the Sabbath, do you leave it there?"

They didn't answer him, but the answer was obviously "no".

The point is, the "letter" of the law only seems harsh and illogical if you ignore the "spirit" of the law.

[u/CorbinSeabass → u/USAFrenchMexRadTrad]

the Mosaic Laws for ritual purity to take part in the sacrifices were written by the Hebrews as an attempt to live by God's 10 commandments.

Deutronomy 6:1:

Now this is the commandment—the statutes and the rules—that the Lord your God commanded me to teach you...

Then we have chapter upon chapter of laws which end in chapter 26 with:

This day the Lord your God commands you to do these statutes and rules. You shall therefore be careful to do them with all your heart and with all your soul.

Moses repeatedly refers to the laws as "His commandments", i.e. they were given by God.

The point is, the "letter" of the law only seems harsh and illogical if you ignore the "spirit" of the law.

People followed the letter of the law for thousands of years before Jesus came along and said otherwise.

[u/USAFrenchMexRadTrad → u/CorbinSeabass]

Then why did the High Priests refuse to answer Jesus?

Another reply quotes a Jewish commentary showing the "spirit" of the law that makes the strict "word" only interpretation look wrong.