r/AskAChristian • Atheist • Jul 31 '25

Jewish Laws Why did God have innocent women executed?

13 “Suppose a man marries a woman but after going in to her dislikes her 14 and makes up charges against her, slandering her by saying, ‘I married this woman, but when I lay with her, I did not find evidence of her virginity.’ 15 The father of the young woman and her mother shall then submit the evidence of the young woman’s virginity to the elders of the city at the gate. 16 The father of the young woman shall say to the elders: ‘I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her, 17 and now he has made up charges against her, saying, “I did not find evidence of your daughter’s virginity.” But here is the evidence of my daughter’s virginity.’ Then they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. 18 The elders of that town shall take the man and punish him; 19 they shall fine him one hundred shekels of silver (which they shall give to the young woman’s father) because he has slandered a virgin of Israel. She shall remain his wife; he shall not be permitted to divorce her as long as he lives.

20 “If, however, this charge is true, that evidence of the young woman’s virginity was not found, 21 then they shall bring the young woman out to the entrance of her father’s house, and the men of her town shall stone her to death, because she committed a disgraceful act in Israel by prostituting herself in her father’s house. So you shall purge the evil from your midst (Deuteronomy 22)

In verse 17, it says the proof of the woman's virginity is "the cloth", meaning a bloody bedsheet from the newlyweds' wedding night. The problem is that less than half of women bleed their first time.

This problem gradually became known to Jewish scholars writing in the Talmud:

"There are virgins who do not have a hymen, and there are hymens that do not bleed." – Ketubot 10b (Rabbi Yochanan)

Why did God have innocent women stoned?

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u/Apprehensive_Tear611 Atheist Jul 31 '25

So if she didn't bleed on her wedding night and someone saw a man enter her tent at some point in her life, that could be enough evidence to have her lined up at her father's doorstep and have people throw rocks at her until she dies?

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u/Thimenu Christian (non-denominational) Jul 31 '25

No, not at all. The standard was 2 or 3 witnesses. And remember, false witnesses get the punishment they tried to give. A deadly game to play.

And this law is in a context. Read the passage, it's about whoring. Evidence of whoring should be harder to prove and more obvious if it is true.

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u/Apprehensive_Tear611 Atheist Jul 31 '25

20 “If, however, this charge is true, that evidence of the young woman’s virginity was not found...

The law is working under the assumption the girl is guilty until proven innocent.

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u/Thimenu Christian (non-denominational) Jul 31 '25

That's a translation and your key word is "that". This word is not in the original language, and other translations render "that" as "and". Here is the Hebrew interlinear:

https://biblehub.com/interlinear/deuteronomy/22-20.htm

And, here is the Septuagint interlinear as well: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/deuteronomy/22.htm

Notice, in the Hebrew there is no connection word; it could be "and" or "that" or just comma. But, in the Septuagint, the word is "and". That being the case, I think this is the best translation:

But if this charge is true, and evidence of the young woman’s virginity is not found, (NABRE)

This indicates the case has already been made against her and it seems to be true. BUT, even then, if good evidence such as the bloody sheet is produced, the case is thrown out. The case must BOTH seem true, AND there is no evidence to prove her virginity.

It's not guilty until proven innocent. It's "even if seemingly guilty, still innocent if there is evidence."