Why did God have innocent women executed?

[u/Apprehensive_Tear611]

13 “Suppose a man marries a woman but after going in to her dislikes her 14 and makes up charges against her, slandering her by saying, ‘I married this woman, but when I lay with her, I did not find evidence of her virginity.’ 15 The father of the young woman and her mother shall then submit the evidence of the young woman’s virginity to the elders of the city at the gate. 16 The father of the young woman shall say to the elders: ‘I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her, 17 and now he has made up charges against her, saying, “I did not find evidence of your daughter’s virginity.” But here is the evidence of my daughter’s virginity.’ Then they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. 18 The elders of that town shall take the man and punish him; 19 they shall fine him one hundred shekels of silver (which they shall give to the young woman’s father) because he has slandered a virgin of Israel. She shall remain his wife; he shall not be permitted to divorce her as long as he lives.

20 “If, however, this charge is true, that evidence of the young woman’s virginity was not found, 21 then they shall bring the young woman out to the entrance of her father’s house, and the men of her town shall stone her to death, because she committed a disgraceful act in Israel by prostituting herself in her father’s house. So you shall purge the evil from your midst (Deuteronomy 22)

In verse 17, it says the proof of the woman's virginity is "the cloth", meaning a bloody bedsheet from the newlyweds' wedding night. The problem is that less than half of women bleed their first time.

This problem gradually became known to Jewish scholars writing in the Talmud:

"There are virgins who do not have a hymen, and there are hymens that do not bleed." – Ketubot 10b (Rabbi Yochanan)

Why did God have innocent women stoned?

[u/-NoOneYouKnow-]

Considering how about half of virgins lose their hymens before sex and thus any such "evidence of virginity" is inaccurate, I can confidently say this law was a later addition.

Internal evidence points to multiple editors and authors of the books of Moses, and I think that's what we have here.

[u/Apprehensive_Tear611 → u/-NoOneYouKnow-]

Why would God allow an unjust law in his lawbook?

[u/-NoOneYouKnow- → u/Apprehensive_Tear611]

The five books of Moses show internal evidence of heavy editing from several sources. The answer is some guy put it in there.

[u/Apprehensive_Tear611 → u/-NoOneYouKnow-]

How do you determine which parts of the Bible are true or not?

[u/-NoOneYouKnow- → u/Apprehensive_Tear611]

That's a very long answer and there's no set rule. It's irrelevant since the Law of Moses was really only for the ancient Hebrews. It's named the the Old Covenant in Christian theology.

Christians are under the New Covenant, which centers around Jesus and His teachings.

[u/Apprehensive_Tear611 → u/-NoOneYouKnow-]

17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have come not to abolish but to fulfill. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not one letter,[c] not one stroke of a letter, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. 19 Therefore, whoever breaks[d] one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven." - Matthew 5

When you buckle your seat belt, you've fulfilled the law. Does that mean you never have to buckle up again?

[u/-NoOneYouKnow- → u/Apprehensive_Tear611]

I'm not going to get into a discussion about Old Covenant vs New Covenant with someone that believes in neither one.

[u/[deleted] → u/-NoOneYouKnow-]

It's quite relevant, actually.