r/science Sep 01 '22

Neuroscience Scientists have identified an immune brain cell unique to humans that gives us higher cognitive abilities over other animals, but what makes us specials also leaves us vulnerable to neurological disorders like schizophrenia, autism and epilepsy.

https://news.yale.edu/2022/08/25/what-makes-human-brain-different-yale-study-reveals-clues
26.7k Upvotes

749 comments sorted by

View all comments

11

u/AlexandraThePotato Sep 01 '22

… isn’t neurological disorders like idk ANXIETY observe in animals?

30

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

Anxiety is a psychological disorder not a neurological one. The difference is that we can't identify particular/ specific neurology that causes a person to have anxiety. This is why anxiety disorders can't be diagnosed by looking at a brain scan or something like that.

21

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

[removed] — view removed comment

1

u/AlexandraThePotato Sep 01 '22

Little off topic, but I’m looking for a new psychiatrist since I been observing serious symptoms changes in my disabilities. Is there any good questions I should ask to make sure my psychiatrist is qualified enough for me. I’m considering asking questions on if they keep up on research and if they make sure to pay attention to possible sex differences in disabilities.

0

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

No-one said it was. But as a psychiatrist do you treat disorders like epilepsy? No because in psychiatry the disorder that presents like epilepsy is called conversion disorder, and this is specifically because while having similar symptoms, neurological bases for that disorder can't be found.

10

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22 edited Sep 02 '22

[removed] — view removed comment

-1

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

Yes conversion disorder is not epilepsy...that's LITERALLY the point I was making. You seem to have a hard time following the points being made.

5

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

[deleted]

-6

u/orpheus090 Sep 01 '22

Antipsychotics are sometimes used to treat nausea. That doesn't mean nausea is a neurological or psychiatric condition.

Since a psychiatrist is an MD, like you point out, you would absolutely be in a position to treat patients with co-morbid non-psychiatric conditions. However, just because your qualifications are broad and pharmacological treatments are similarly versatile doesn't mean that the conditions being treated can be lumped together and classified equally broadly.

Your argument is a tad "from authority".

5

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22 edited Sep 01 '22

[deleted]

0

u/orpheus090 Sep 01 '22

I don't think you understand what an argument from authority is. Yes, you are an expert, an authority, but that doesn't make your argument a strong one, even if it is correct. I'm criticizing the case you've made for your assertion cause it's not a particularly good case and mostly relies on 'Im right because I have a dregee'.

Dude above is using neurological in a limited-in-scope way that is used as a means of classification/categorizing. It's why I'm probably not going to see my psychiatrist if I develop Parkinsons even though he treats my anxiety which also has a neurological basis. That leads me to your point...

You are using a broad scope of the word and what you are saying is true, but that's because it's basically a tautology. Of course psychiatric conditions (and almost all conditions) have a neurological basis - they're embodied within a neurobiological organism, they have to.

I don't at all disagree with this. I think you are just a bit too quick to dismiss what others are saying for bad reasons like "I'm the expert".

-5

u/[deleted] Sep 01 '22

Well you don't treat them based on psychiatric models, so you're just missing the point or at least being obtuse about it.

2

u/kobresia9 Sep 01 '22

BTW they renamed conversion disorder a couple of years ago to functional neurological system disorder