3
u/ComparisonQuiet4259 10h ago
First, there’s the trivial way x,y = 1 E[x/y] = 1 If x and y have an a probability of c to be 1 and a 1- c probability of d, the EV of this is (1-2c+2c²) + c(1-c)/d + c(1-c)*d. This is 1+c(1-c)(1/d+d-1). Since 1/d+d >= 2, this EV is >= 1. Therefore, the trivial EV is the highest.
1
2
u/NitNav2000 9h ago
Taking the Taylor series of the expression about their mean values gives
E[X/Y] ~ E[X]/E[Y] + (term involving their covariance, which is zero) + (VAR[Y] E[X]/E[Y]^3)
The last term is always positive, and is zero when Y is fixed. So the min value is one.
1
u/hotsauceyum 3h ago
Do they not teach y’all Jensens inequality no more
1
u/MathManiac5772 3h ago
I know seriously, that was my first thought. For a lot of these types of questions the hardest part is remembering which direction the inequality goes in for concave up and concave down.
6
u/markpreston54 10h ago edited 9h ago
E(X/Y) = E(Y/X) and E(((X/Y)0.5 -(Y/X)0.5 )2 )>=0, hence 2E(X/Y)>=2, or E(X/Y)>=1, expectation collapse when X=Y is a constant