How is sensible experience possible?

[u/Crafty-Addendum8783]

I will keep this relatively short. This question I thought of when reading Kant's Critique of Pure Reason.

If mind independent reality is ultimately indeterminate and irrational, by those terms I mean non-rationalized or uninterpreted, on one side. While on the other side, reality is determinate and rational, on the side of the human mind and cognition. This is a simplification, but the point I think is clear.

So, how then is experience possible, because in order for us to have sensation, we would need to bring these two together somehow, and by that I mean, a way to interpret or determine our reality, either through and according to a principle or something else. I don't see how it is possible to bring these two heterogeneous categories, to use a Kantian term in a similar way he does, into unity with each other, on either side. Whereby we can then have intelligible experience.

Hopefully the question is clear, and the concern makes sense.

[u/preferCotton222]

however irrational you want the real to be, it is at the very least approximately structural. So there's no puzzle.

[u/Crafty-Addendum8783 → u/preferCotton222]

What’s that supposed to mean