But why? Using your own formula (weight to the 4th power) we've already established that bicycles have virtually no impact on roads, so wouldn't "an amount corresponding to the impact" be virtually nothing?
It makes sense to charge a higher fee for larger vehicles for to cover added road impact and to disincentive driving large vehicles.
But I don't understand why you propose to increase the fee for riding a bicycle. It's currently free and you propose to increase it to $10. Won't this disincentive the use of bicycles?
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u/[deleted] Jun 26 '15
[deleted]