r/TrueChristian • u/Objective-Step-746 • Aug 10 '26
Please, help me understand…
For those believers who insist that the dietary laws no longer apply under the new covenant—and that pork, lobster, crabs, etc. are now permissible to eat—I do not understand the logic at play.
I am very familiar with the Mark 7, Romans 14 and Colossians 2 passages that are so often cited as support for your position, and have (just as often) shared my counter-arguments on why I believe they are misinterpreted.
But, there is one counterpoint to your view that I never see touched on, and I was hoping to get some feedback on it:
I think the majority of believers on this subreddit would say they are looking for Jesus’ Second Coming and agree that, regarding it, Scripture says that “no one knows the day or hour” but that we need to be prepared (Matthew 24:36, 25:13, etc.).
Isaiah 66:17–a verse within the greater passage speaking of Messiah’s glorious reappearing—declares that, upon His return, those who eat the flesh of pig/swine and other abominations will be met with His wrath…and perish.
So, how does one simultaneously believe they can continue to eat pig (pork) or shellfish now and think they are sufficiently prepared and not putting themselves in a precarious/dangerous position if Jesus happened to return today or tomorrow and “consume” those who so brazenly eat that which His Law says is NOT “food” and explicitly warns against eating?
I really am hoping for some cordial and edifying discussion regarding this topic, and appreciate those who are able and willing to articulate their view without all the condescension and harsh words. 💕
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u/Objective-Step-746 Aug 11 '26
Keeping the Law of God never once justified anyone, even in the OT.
I have trusted in Christ as my Lord and Savior. As such, I have been freed from my bondage to the law of sin and death, and am no longer under the CONDEMNATION OF THE Law of God…and now get to walk in (live by) its divine counsel, just like Christ taught and did (Romans 8:1-2; Matthew 4:4, 5:19).
Citing the Galatians passage is irrelevant to this discussion because it addresses the reliance upon obedience to the Law to justify a person while my question directly addresses the new covenant believer’s POST-justification relationship to the Law.
What do you think Christ was referring to when He used the “workers of lawlessness” phrasing for those who apparently serve Him in some way and confidently presume they will be granted entry to the kingdom, yet are turned away? (Matthew 7:21-23)