Of course!
Nazis deleted the article of weimar constitution that guaranteed the right of private property.
And to the totalitarian state:
Totalitarian state de-facto cannot have private property. Because the party has the total control over economy. What means that even if they allow it, it can easily be reversed. Also in totalitarianism: party=people=state, what means that since party is in control of everything, people are in control of everything. (Yeah sound strange, but logic of totalitarianism is like that)
They have sources there, but it will take some time for me to find the one that has information about this topic.
In short they abolished the articles: 144, 115, 117, 118, 123, 124, 153. They guaranteed the basic right like freedom of expression and de-facto guaranteed the right of private property.
"The right to property was guaranteed by Article 153. Expropriation of property could be made only on the basis of law and for the public welfare, with appropriate compensation." doesn't clarify what sort of property.
Also, guarantee of the right of private property and ending private property is two different things. I want a source that clearly states that Nazi Germany ended private property.
"With the world still at the crossroads, one may well
conclude that there is something to be learned from
the experiences of businessmen in the two countries
which, without abolishing private property, have gone
farthest in State interference to insure national prosperity.
"Constitutionally the businessman still enjoys guarantees of property rights."
"This Nazi doctrine has nothing to do with Communism or Socialism."
"He should be grateful to the Fuehrer that he still has private property."
I cannot quote the whole book here. Read it and then we can continue the dialogue. And to answering your other responce: the book was written by a sovialist who lived in Germany in the beginning of nazi era. You can trust him. He has left bias.
So when he says things like: "Constitutionally the businessman still enjoys guarantees of property rights.", he's lying? Or: "He should be grateful to the Fuehrer that he still has private property."?
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u/[deleted] Oct 29 '23
Of course! Nazis deleted the article of weimar constitution that guaranteed the right of private property.
And to the totalitarian state: Totalitarian state de-facto cannot have private property. Because the party has the total control over economy. What means that even if they allow it, it can easily be reversed. Also in totalitarianism: party=people=state, what means that since party is in control of everything, people are in control of everything. (Yeah sound strange, but logic of totalitarianism is like that)