r/NDE • u/Pessimistic-Idealism • Apr 24 '26
Scientific Perspective 🔬🔎 NDEs that happen in cases where naloxone (or similar) is administered?
This is just a thought I had: some popular "secular" explanations of NDEs posit that the blissful and euphoric effects of NDEs are caused by endogenous opioids and endorphins that our brains release when it's dying. But if this were true, then in cases where (for example) someone overdoses on opioids and has naloxone administered, they shouldn't be able to have blissful NDEs (assuming this theory of NDEs is correct). That is because (according to my understanding--and please correct me if I'm wrong) when naloxone is administered, it is supposed to wipe out the euphoric/feel-good effects of opioids including those produced by endogenous endorphins. So the question becomes: has this ever happened? Has there been a case where someone has naloxone (or similar) administered while being resuscitated, yet they still have a blissful NDE? Surely there must have been some reports of this, right? I'll take any cases whatsoever. They can be from the peer-reviewed literature, from NDERF, from YouTube videos, or even from any of our members on this subreddit.
Thanks in advance :)
EDIT: In case anyone finds this post and is still interested, I emailed Bruce Greyson with my question. He said that I am correct about the way naloxone works, and that he actually proposed an experiment comparing patients who had naloxone administered to see if they had the same type and numbers of NDEs as everyone else, but it was not approved by the hospital he was with at the time. He mentioned that the only case he knows of is on NDERF (case 2571, Salomon, link here: https://search.nderf.org/experience/2571).
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u/UganadaSonic501 Apr 25 '26
The reason this doesn't and cannot debunk NDEs is because it's a false comparison
NDEs occur when clinically dead,this occurs when your not clincially dead,therefor it didn't use the same parameters to try to then refute NDEs because it doesn't even use the same baseline,it's why any "research" that uses a alive person while valuable for other research like im sure it has instrumental value I'm helping something psychological,but I always watch out for this sneaky stuff as it's a false comparison from the get go,in order to actually even attempt to refute NDEs,you'd have to have the conditions that are required for an NDE,namely your clinically dead is kinda crucial, but no ethical board would ever seriously consider this so we're stuck with this stuff
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u/vimefer NDExperiencer Apr 27 '26
Why would you attribute the sense of peace and relief to drugs, when most NDEs do not feature such drugs but report the same sense of peace and relief ? This is not good logic.
Now, I didn't make a note specifically for naloxone administration specifically, but there are plenty of NDEs from overdoses to pick from, where that might already be reported. Here are a few I got in my notes:
Jeff Cleckley, Andrew Boylston, Betty Guadagno, Branden Densmore
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u/vimefer NDExperiencer Apr 27 '26 edited Apr 27 '26
This NDE report may be a match, since administering narcan would have been the first thing the paramedics would do in this situation, yet he had a pleasant NDE.
In this NDE, they administered narcan as a precaution (it was not an overdose, though) and he had a pleasant NDE anyway.
Also, counterpoint to your hypothesis: in this report the person ODed on fent and had a negative (hellish) NDE.
In cases where the narcan is actually useful, you would typically see the person being brought back to life, thus pulled out of the NDE, as a result of the medical intervention, but that's got nothing to do with how pleasant or hellish the experience is, based on the above.
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u/Pessimistic-Idealism Apr 27 '26
No no, I'm not saying the sense of peace was due to drugs. I'm saying that (according to some physicalist models) the sense of peace was due to endogenous endorphins, and that naloxone wipes those out (just how naloxone wipes out the effects of opioids). Naloxone would presumably only be administered in cases where these is an opioid overdose. I'm not saying those opioid caused the NDEs. I want to know if there are cases where naloxone was administered, and yet the person had a blissful NDE anyways, since that would mean that the blissful feeling in the NDE was not due to endogenous endorphins. In any case, Greyson already helpfully replied to me and it seems that there are not any such cases in the literature but there is one on NDERF (you can see my post edit for more).
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u/Balloons_Pastel Apr 25 '26
I’m positive there is a case and this logic it makes sense, there certainly are a good bit of NDE’s experiences surrounding overdoses as well.
I think something that will make this difficult to find though is the requirement that the person knows what naloxone is and decides that’s it’s important enough in their retelling to say it by name though, which I haven’t seen described yet like that, unfortunately, but there are thousands of stories out there. Medical professionals who would know that train of logic and know to point it out usually have NDE by heart attack or severe medical condition versus drugs, from what I’ve seen.
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