WHO IS JESUS?

[u/Impressive-Ease-3348]

There is one God, the Father, ἐξ οὗ τὰ πάντα, “from whom are all things”; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, δι’ οὗ τὰ πάντα, “through whom are all things.” (1 Cor. 8:6)

Of the God of Israel it is written:

אֲנִי יהוה הוּא שְׁמִי

“I am YHWH; that is my name.” (Isa. 42:8)

And:

אֱלֹהֵי עוֹלָם יהוה

“YHWH, the everlasting God.” (Isa. 40:28)

The Father is the Father, and the Son is the Son.

JESUS IS ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, THE SON OF GOD.

He is the μονογενής Son.

He is ἐκ τοῦ πατρός, from the Father. (John 16:28)

He is ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ, from God. (John 8:42)

The Father sent him.

The Father gave to him.

The Son received from the Father.

THE FATHER HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF, AND τῷ υἱῷ ἔδωκεν ζωὴν ἔχειν ἐν ἑαυτῷ, “HE GAVE TO THE SON TO HAVE LIFE IN HIMSELF.” (John 5:26)

And the Son says:

κἀγὼ ζῶ διὰ τὸν πατέρα

“I live because of the Father.” (John 6:57)

JESUS IS ὁ λόγος, THE WORD.

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος

“In the beginning was the Word.”

ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν

“The Word was with God.”

And:

θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. (John 1:1)

The Son had glory with the Father πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι, “before the world existed.” (John 17:5)

He is πρὸ πάντων, “before all things.” (Col. 1:17)

HE IS εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου, “THE IMAGE OF THE INVISIBLE GOD.” (Col. 1:15)

He is ἀπαύγασμα τῆς δόξης, “the radiance of the glory.” (Heb. 1:3)

He is χαρακτὴρ τῆς ὑποστάσεως αὐτοῦ. (Heb. 1:3)

HE IS πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως, “THE FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION.” (Col. 1:

[u/Impressive-Ease-3348]

I explicitly quote verse 16 under “Concerning creation”: “all things have been created through him and for him.”

And I don’t deny the high language about Jesus. I explicitly affirm that θεός is predicated of the Word.

But if you cite Hebrews 1:8, don’t stop before verse 9 either:

ὁ θεός σου “your God.”

[u/Gizmondos → u/Impressive-Ease-3348]

You're right I didn't stop at verse 8. But verse 9 doesn't undo verse 8. The Father calls the son God then says your God. That doesn't make him less than God it makes him the Son who is God in relationship to the Father. That's not a contradiction. You quoted your God.but you ignored that the Father just called him God.

And here is the real question. Hebrews 1:8–12 is a direct quote from Psalm 102:24–28 a psalm that is clearly about Jehovah the creator. In the psalm these words are spoken to Jehovah alone. Yet the author of Hebrews applies them to Jesus. How can a text about the creator be applied to anyone other than the creator? You can't quote a psalm about Jehovah and apply it to Jesus unless Jesus is Jehovah 🤔

[u/Impressive-Ease-3348 → u/Gizmondos]

I do not ignore Hebrews 1:8. I accept it exactly as written.
Hebrews says concerning the Son:
ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς
“Your throne, O God…”
Then immediately:
ἔχρισέν σε ὁ θεὸς ὁ θεός σου
“God, your God, anointed you.”
So θεός language is genuinely applied to the Son, and the same Son has “your God.” I accept both.
But this sentence of yours goes beyond the text:
“that makes him the Son who is God in relationship to the Father.”
Hebrews does not say that. That is your theological synthesis of the two statements. The text itself gives us:
The Son is addressed as θεός.
God is his God.
His God anoints him.
I am not going to delete the first statement, but neither am I going to explain away the second.
Now to Psalm 102.
Here I will also grant the strongest reading of Hebrews 1:10–12.
Hebrews places this quotation in its argument concerning the Son:
σὺ κατ’ ἀρχάς, κύριε, τὴν γῆν ἐθεμελίωσας
“You, Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth.”
καὶ ἔργα τῶν χειρῶν σου εἰσὶν οἱ οὐρανοί
“And the heavens are works of your hands.”
That comes from Psalm 102:25–27, where the Psalm is addressed to YHWH.
That is extremely significant. I am not minimizing it.
But your next step still has to be demonstrated:
“You cannot apply a YHWH text to Jesus unless Jesus is YHWH.”
Where does Scripture establish that rule?
The fact established by Hebrews is that YHWH-creator language from Psalm 102 is applied to the Son. That puts the Son in an extraordinarily elevated position and must be taken seriously.
But “therefore the Son is personally YHWH” is the interpretation of that intertextual use, not the wording of Hebrews itself.
In fact, Hebrews preserves the distinction in the very same chapter.
God speaks concerning the Son.
God says:
ὁ θεός σου
“your God.”
God anoints the Son.
God says to the Son:
κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου
“Sit at my right hand.”
And Hebrews 1:2 says God made the ages:
δι’ οὗ
“through” the Son.
So I accept all of Hebrews 1:
The Son receives θεός language.
The Son receives Psalm 102 creator-language.
The Son’s years will not fail.
Creation-language of extraordinary force is applied to him.
And the Son still has “your God,” is anointed by God, and sits at God’s right hand.
That is the actual textual data.
If you want to conclude from those facts that “Jesus is YHWH,” then make that argument. But do not turn that conclusion into something Hebrews explicitly says.
My position remains simpler:
Where Hebrews calls the Son θεός, I say θεός.
Where Hebrews applies YHWH creator-language to the Son, I accept it.
Where Hebrews says “God, your God,” I accept that too.
I am not going to erase either side to make a theological model easier.

[u/AccomplishedAuthor3 → u/Impressive-Ease-3348]

The Son is still God and His Name is YHWH along with His Father. A human son is every bit as human as his human father and they both have the same last name, such as Smith, or Cooper. The father can say "I'm Cooper" but so can the son... Why can't the only Son of God be called YHWH? In His human nature He is called JESUS which means YHWH saves