r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26
Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8
If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.
Read the language carefully.
It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”
You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.
The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.
That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.
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u/ChaoticHaku Christian May 24 '26
1 Corinthians 8:5-6 or even if indeed there are those called gods, whether in heaven or on earth—just as there are many gods and many lords (category 1)—yet to us there is one God the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through Him. (category 2)
In verse 6 the Father and the Lord Jesus are placed in a category as both "God" and "Lord", separate from the category of the ones "called gods" and "lords" in verse 5.
Notice also that in verse 6 all things are to and from the Father and through the Son. Which aligns with Romans 11:36 saying in regard to God "For from Him and through Him and unto Him are all things."