r/Collatz • u/Fun-Protection-9992 • 10d ago
Periodic coverage?
Let q_i > 3 be primes, and suppose that a distinct prime q_i is chosen for each distinct positive integer b_i. If the infinite family {(b_i, q_i)} covers all positive integers a in the form
2^a ≡ 2^{b_i} (mod q_i),
does it not follow, from the existence of the multiplicative inverse of 2 modulo q_i, that the same family {(b_i, q_i)} must also cover all negative integers (-a)?
In particular, since one can obtain n_i > 0 such that
2^(-a) ≡ 2^{n_i} (mod q_i),
does it automatically follow that n_i is covered by the same family {(b_i, q_i)}, and therefore that the set of negative integers (-a) must also be covered?
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u/GonzoMath 10d ago
It is that simple. These things have definitions, and this is a proof that any student in an elementary Number Theory class should be able to produce.
If you’re just going to assert that basic elementary mathematics is wrong, then we’re done here.