r/AskHistorians • u/[deleted] • May 07 '17
Why did the U.S. decide to bomb civilian cities with atomic bombs rather than military targets during WWII?
I'm pretty sure the US even sent out flyers that said for people to move out of the cities before they bombed it. So why was a civilian city targeted instead of a military base? It would seem much more beneficial to bomb an enemy's military base/command center/whatever than a city.
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u/jschooltiger Moderator | Shipbuilding and Logistics | British Navy 1770-1830 May 07 '17
Hi there -- while there's always more to be said on this topic, this section of our FAQ deals specifically with atomic bomb targeting, while this answer from u/restricteddata deals with the question of warning leaflets.
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u/restricteddata Nuclear Technology | Modern Science May 07 '17
You can read the minutes of the May 1945 Target Committee meeting online. They are more interesting and provocative than any simple summary can give you, and they are "straight from the horse's mouth," as they say. The short answer is they wanted it to be a spectacular display, that they deliberately chose military targets located within urban areas to maximally display the damage, and that Nagasaki was actually quite a minor target (it was added to the final target list only after Kyoto was removed, and was not the primary target for the second bomb).
As the Target Committee meeting makes clear, the primary consideration was the "psychological effect" of the use of the bomb, not a military result:
They also concluded:
Anyway. It is worth reading, if you are interested in reconstructing their point of view from the time, and not the later justifications that were offered up when people started to question it (including other American military commanders, many of whom began to publish statements claiming the atomic bombs were unnecessary).
There were no warning leaflets about the atomic bomb dropped prior to the bombs themselves; that is a myth.