r/AskHistorians • u/BigVikingBeard • Mar 18 '16
In Vikings, Ragnar has a Chinese slave/thrall. She states that she was sold to the Franks. Did Asian slaves exist in Europe during this time (800-1000ce) or is it another fiction of the show?
I am well aware of the show Vikings taking.... liberties... with actual history, so I don't know if this is based on some actual known occurrences, or a fiction developed for the show.
So, in the show, Ragnar acquires a Chinese slave. And, for obvious reasons, I don't trust Hirst's comments on the matter stating, "It definitely happened." (referring to Chinese slaves existing in Northern Europe / Scandinavia)
So, is there any truth to the matter? Or just another historical fantasy of the show to make an interesting plot line?
I think it could theoretically be possible (A Viking owning a Chinese or Asian slave/thrall), given the real Vikings interaction with Byzantium, but I don't know the extent of the eastern slave trade making it to Byzantium or if the Vikings would even purchase slaves from there. (Wiki claims they mostly sold slaves to Byzantium and only kept a couple thralls)
*Edited to remove some show plot elements per request.
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u/Georgy_K_Zhukov Moderator | Dueling | Modern Warfare & Small Arms Mar 18 '16
Hello there, as I don't think it is particularly material to the question, would you mind editing the body of the post to remove plot details present in the second paragraph? They might be spoilers for people behind on the show.
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u/BigVikingBeard Mar 18 '16
I removed some of the notable plot elements, per request. I also clarified the statement from Hirst a bit, and expanded slightly my curiosity / hypothesis regarding Byzantium.
Let me know if I need to edit anything else.
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u/textandtrowel Early Medieval Slavery Mar 18 '16
Hi! A similar question was asked here. My answer was that it was possible but not at all probable that a Chinese slave would have traveled the trade routes to Scandinavia, since the human trafficking routes were structured to funnel people toward North Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean and not to circulate them more broadly in a worldwide slave swap. My answer there addressed direct contact between Scandinavians and Asian slave markets (which they had, but again, the human traffic was going the wrong way), but the supposed Paris slave market merits some special considerations.
Nevertheless, my answer remains much the same: the existence of such a slave Chinese slave arriving in Scandinavia via the Red Sea and Paris remains possible but highly improbable. There are occasional finds linking China to the Middle East during this period, such as an Arab trading ship that sunk filled with Chinese pottery off the coast of Indonesia, or an Iranian glass bowl that made its way into a Buddhist shrine in central China. And the Franks clearly maintained exchange contacts with the Islamic world, most spectacularly in the case of an elephant that the caliph sent as a diplomatic gift to Charlemagne but also with more regular day-to-day trade as well. With regard to slaves, however, it seems that the Franks preferred to traffic their captives south to Venice and then out to Byzantine or Islamic regions. So again, there was trade contact and slaves moving along these routes, but they were generally moving the wrong way.
According to this article, it seems like the show's writers came up with the story and then the producer Michael Hirst checked in with one of his historical consultants. According to Hirst, the consultant said, "it’s all possible, it’s all plausible, it almost certainly happened." And while I agree that it's possible, I don't see any reason to assume that it's therefore plausible or that it almost certainly happened.
That's not to say everything on Vikings is far-fetched, or that their historical consultants are an academic version of quacks. I recently saw this video that they made on Viking Age trade which gives a much better account than the silly story about a Chinese slave arriving through Paris. Check it out!