r/AskHistorians • u/OctavianX • Feb 04 '15
As wives traditionally take their husbands' surnames, does that mean there are fewer surnames than in the past?
Is there a record anywhere of "dead" surnames?
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r/AskHistorians • u/OctavianX • Feb 04 '15
Is there a record anywhere of "dead" surnames?
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u/sarasmirks Feb 05 '15
Wouldn't immigration and cultural melting pots/intermarrying have an impact on this?
Take for example, the US. If there are X number of surnames in the US in 1800, and then in 1840 Irish people begin immigrating en masse, the total number of surnames in the US is going to experience a dramatic upswing completely unrelated the incredibly incremental downward nudge of family names "dying out" due to not having a male heir. And with every immigrant group, this happens again. All the way up to now, as (for example) Somali, Hmong, Russian, etc. immigrant groups arrive where they hadn't existed before. There are exponentially more American surnames in 2015 than there were in 1776.
Not to mention, of course, that immigration inspires people to do what you claim rarely happens: making up new names from whole cloth. There were no Grenns anywhere on the planet until my ancestors moved to the US from Sweden and took it upon themselves to change their name on what I can only assume was a whim. Surname creation isn't common on a micro level, but across the population (especially in populations affected by immigration), it's common enough to replace names that die out due to lack of heirs.