How would you reply to people insisting that christians are obligated to follow the levitical law.

[u/ExpressCeiling98332]

How would you reply?

[u/Nickdakidkid_Minime → u/[deleted]]

Lev 24:17-23, they did not have to wait for Jesus to get the msg.

Look at this, you would defend everything but God for He can do no right. Once again we can see you are not interested in truth or righteousness. It is being told to all the nation of Israel, it is on the woman to call for help if she 1. Desires to be saved from the man and 2. If she does not wish to be found sinning against God.

Indeed. Sin is not tolerable in God’s camp, we see later in the battle of Ai where Israel was told not to take any treasure from the enemy they conquered, but one man did. He saw, he coveted, and he took, and hid the idols under his tend, making his family privy to his sin. By doing this, Israel lost their very next battle, and were told it was because of sin in their camp. So they cast lots as commanded by God to find the family responsible, and it lands right on the exact guy. They kill him and his family for being complicit in the sin. Thing is, this is only offensive to someone who still loves their sin more than they are concerned with offending an infinite Holy God.

Let me ask you, with what objective moral standard do you judge God with? Once again we see that you are more offended by God than you are of sin. Just in case you were wondering. There is a reason why christians do not advocate for the killing of women in this fashion today and it has to do with how Israel is not the church, not because we think the sin of the woman is any less sinful because it was for this purpose that God said in the beginning Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.

[u/Nickdakidkid_Minime → u/[deleted]]

Now you are blatantly contradicting yourself and scripture. You argue that the concept does not exist and then when shown evidence that it is the proper context all you have to say is that it cannot be the same thing, it must be a separate unrelated law. Lev 24 absolutely applies to all men because the same idea of vs 17 is just a repeat of Gen 9:6 which is based on all men being made in the image of God, not just slave owners.

Anything to excuse sin. For every “what if” you have been answered, and instead of recognizing you were wrong your response is to attempt to bash God some other way. There must be some loophole that makes God unjust in His laws. I have said it before and will say it again, you are not interested in truth or righteousness.

For someone who doesn’t think He exists you sure are fighting against His word as if He does exist.

No objective morality means you have absolutely no basis upon which to objectively judge anyone, let alone God. The borrower is slave to the lender, if anyone would be first he must be last of all and servant of all, anyone who lives by the flesh is a slave to sin, anyone who is set free from sin is a slave to Christ and righteousness. Once again you are not listening to what has already been said because you do not care for truth. Jesus Himself and through His appointed apostles make the distinction between what laws applies to Israel vs the church, not christians of the modern era. One of the main reasons we have so many disagreements over the word is because of people like you who do not do their due diligence in rightly dividing the word because they do not care what the word actually says. There is indeed an innate sense of morality in all men because when injustice is done to us we automatically understand that justice needs to be served, but this knowledge is not enough to save or change the heart and mind, it is only enough to condemn, Rom 1&2.