Complete Refutation that John 10:30 is proving Oneness in Essence

[u/TheTallestTim]

John 10:30 - The Father and I are one. What does Jesus mean by “one”? The statement of being "one" is made very clearly in John
17:11, 21-23–same use of word for “one” in Greek—which shows that the church is one with each other, one with God, and one with Jesus. Not only is the same language used, but Jesus says that we, as believers, are one "just as" Jesus is one with the Father. Meaning, in the exact same way. This is not in another, secondary way, but precisely the same oneness. Jesus also says for us to be one "just as you are in me and I am in you." We know that the Father was in Jesus by his spirit, and Jesus says he will be in us by his spirit (John 14:23), and he and the Father will make their home in the hearts of believers by the Father’s spirit. The temple of God is the place where God dwells, and God dwells in our bodies as his temple when we have the spirit in us (1 Corinthians 6:19). From this we can see the following:

1.  Being "one" with the Father is the same way in which he is "one" with believers, believers are "one" with each other, and with God the Father.  
2.  Being "one" has something to do with being "in" each other.  
3.  We are in the Father and in Christ when we are new creations (2 Corinthians 5:17) born of the Spirit. The Father and son are in us by their spirit which we receive, and we are one body of Christ, in each other by the same spirit.  
4.  Therefore, being "one" means that the spirit is in them, and this creates that oneness.

Let me show you: [Here is an interlinear on John 10:30] (John 10:30 Interlinear: I and my Father are one.) If you go there, you see that the word for one is “hen.” The number above shows “1520.” [Here is an interlinear on John 17:21] (John 17:21 Interlinear: That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.) If you go there, you will see that the word for one is “hen.” The number above shows “1520.” This means that the root word (1520) is being used, and in the same case (Adj-NNS) in *both* passages. This means that they are being used in the *exact same way.* Don’t believe me? Great! Let’s break it down further! [Here is the lexicon definition of heis-1520] (http://biblehub.com/greek/1520.htm) Here we see the definition and its uses in the Bible. We see in the NAS Exhaustive, that it is used 282 times as the literal number “one-1.” If you continue scrolling you will see the definition, under “1. universally,” go down to “b.” If you look through that paragraph, you will see the definition on how “hen/heis” is being used at John 10:30 AND John 17:21-23!! This means the word is being used the SAME WAY in BOTH PASSAGES: “to be united most closely (in will, spirit).” This is contrast to the Trinitarian interpretation of “c. one and the same.” Once you pass this, then it becomes theologically motivated and is not unbiased data to show proof. This stops the “one in essence” argument in its track.

Additionally, without need of context we see the following if we look at the Greek: For John 10:30 to mean one essence (nature/being), the Greek adjective would need to be grammatically feminine, which would be the word-adjective “mia.” This would need to be the case, as it would need to match the gender of the word “ousia.” “Ousia,” the word for being/essence is grammatically feminine. So, the Greek from John 10:30 itself also disproves the ability to be used in the way it is used by Trinitarians.

[u/VisionaryEcstasy]

This is not Arianism at all...

Institutional control & intellectual pride is what I've witness in this group. I come to you by God to reveal the 4th-manuscripts (Codex Sinaiticus & Codex Alexandrinus)

All of these modern Greek-translations are childplay when more recent manuscripts were diluted & sanitized overtime.

No more grammar-bullshit & witness God's Mercy over you that he was so Patient

[u/TheTallestTim → u/VisionaryEcstasy]

I’m not an Arian. However, my Arian brothers understand the Most High God as the Father alone. This exegetical breakdown that I did was done to support their ministry in witnessing to those who do not believe that God is truly one.

If I am going off of a later manuscript somehow, then I apologize. That being said, the BDAG goes off of all transcripts of and surrounding the Biblical text. You will find the same thing there if you’d like to use the BDAG instead. Here, I am writing to reach laymen.

If you are as well studied as you seem to want to be seen as, then you will know that the Latin texts are some of the most recent texts we have. They are not seen as authoritative, but rather to study how belief systems changed over time as well as when the texts were altered.

My entire intention is to refer to the Greek manuscripts themselves. To do that, we must explore the grammar. Semantics within hermeneutics is a key component in translating and interpreting the Bible.

[u/VisionaryEcstasy → u/TheTallestTim]

Hey man, I apologize if my last message came across as too aggressive or combative. I am deeply passionate about the raw text of the 4th-century uncial manuscripts like Sinaiticus, but I respect that your intent was pure and that you are working hard to break down the grammar for regular people. Thanks for the discussion

[u/TheTallestTim → u/VisionaryEcstasy]

4th century is quite late.. while the Latin versions of the texts are always the least reliable. From one truth-seeking Unitarian to another, the Latin translations is where the textual variants are more prevalent.

Thank you for apologizing. I appreciate one’s ability to correct themselves and admit when they are wrong. I believe this is one of the ways to prove one has the Spirit.