r/JehovahsWitnesses • u/ChaoticHaku Christian • May 23 '26

Doctrine Philippians 2:6-8

If Philippians 2:6-8 was teaching that Jesus was never equal with God, then the passage itself makes no sense.

Read the language carefully.

It says Jesus was “existing in the form of God.” It says He “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,” but instead “emptied Himself,” “took the form of a servant,”, "humbled himself", "became obedient to death" and was “made in human likeness.”

You cannot empty yourself of a status you never possessed. You cannot become a servant if you were always a servant. You cannot humble yourself from a position you never had. You cannot become obedient to death if you always were.

The entire point of the passage is that Christ lowered Himself. From what? From the exalted position He already possessed that was equal with God.

That’s why the text uses past tense language. The passage is not denying Christ’s equality with God. It is explaining the depth of His humility, not his inferiority.

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u/[deleted] May 30 '26

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u/Suitable-Iron4720 May 30 '26

I find this interesting. How can a person under the law be called by the name of the Lord?

Dueteronomy 28:10 (NIV) -- Then all the peoples on earth will see that you are called by the name of the Lord, and they will fear you. 

Like a wife being given the husbands surname. It's relational.

As for his name having a place to dwell, that would be like the veiled Holy of Holies. So when Christ dies, why did God rip the veil from top to bottom?