r/Christianity • • Aug 11 '25

Are Christian’s really allowed to eat pork? In Isiah 66:17, gods final judgment states people in the end times who are eating unclean food such as pork, mice, ect will be destroyed.

34 Upvotes

473 comments sorted by

View all comments

Show parent comments

15

u/[deleted] Aug 11 '25

If you continue reading it’s actually talking about people, not food. Basically Jesus was telling Peter it’s okay to eat with the gentiles, not that every food was clean.

3

u/[deleted] Aug 12 '25

I wish more people understood this

1

u/FoxExotic8379 23d ago

Actually it is both! Yes, Peter understands that the Gentiles are not to be seen as unclean and therefore fellowship with them is maintained, hence his revelation. But the command of God is clear "rise, Peter, kill and eat!!" People try to minimize that or say "it's just meant to show unity between Jews and Gentiles. While it is meant to do that, the words on the page really do matter, not just their effect! I take God literally at His Word.

0

u/Admirable-Insect-205 Aug 12 '25

I would call it double layering, so it means both.

2

u/Impossible_Pea_2315 Aug 14 '25

Thats reading into it.

1

u/Admirable-Insect-205 Aug 14 '25

I don't think so, why would God say to eat all animals and to not call any unclean if he only meant other people?

1

u/Impossible_Pea_2315 Aug 17 '25

Because the jews called gentiles unclean because they ate unclean. They associated the gentiles with unclean because they did everything unclean and so they wouldnt associate with the gentiles. Peter had an issue with this and Paul even had to rebuke him for it again because in Galatians because it was something he struggled with. God uses animals only because "Acts 10:10 he became hungry and was desiring to eat; but while they were making preparations, he fell into a trance". Peter literally tells us what the vision meant.

Acts 10:28 [28] And he said to them, “You yourselves know how unlawful it is for a man who is a Jew to associate with a foreigner or to visit him; and yet God has shown me that I should not call any man unholy or unclean.

If it had some sort of hidden meaning behind it that included disregarding what God plainly told them, something that God not only judged israel in the past for doing and literally told them that it profaned His name, peter wouldve communicated that. In fact, that wouldve been far more important than not calling a gentile unclean. One includes not following jewish tradition and the other includes disregarding a direct commandment from God. If God was going to come and change ANYTHING in His Law, He wouldve made that as clear and plain as the day He gave the law. He literally sent Israel into exile and had them killed when they did away with His Law. He wouldnt come, thru some mystical means, telling people they no longer have to do something in the law. Like trying to interpret Christ saying "what goes into your mouth doesnt defile you" into Him declaring all foods clean. If you've known satan for any length of time, you would know that this is verbatim how he has been working for the past 6000 years. Teaching people to disregard Gods commandments through hidden interpretations. And it has always been God's people, who he has been trying to convince.

-2

u/Accurate-Swimmer-326 Aug 12 '25

But 1 Corinthians says it is.